ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is educating a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will monitor my blood glucose levels every morning.
- B. I will stop taking my insulin if my blood glucose level is below 200 mg/dL.
- C. I will take my insulin as prescribed, even if I am feeling well.
- D. I will eat more simple carbohydrates if my blood glucose level is low.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because consuming more simple carbohydrates when blood glucose levels are low can cause a rapid spike in blood sugar levels, leading to potential complications. Clients with type 2 diabetes should eat complex carbohydrates or foods that help stabilize blood sugar levels when experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate understanding of monitoring blood glucose levels regularly, not stopping insulin without consulting a healthcare provider, and adhering to insulin therapy even when feeling well, which are all appropriate actions for managing diabetes.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing acute mania and having obtained a verbal prescription for restraints, the nurse must ensure to obtain a formal written prescription for restraint within 4 hours. This is crucial to maintain the safety and proper care of the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because renewing the prescription every 8 hours, checking pulse rate every 30 minutes, and documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes do not address the immediate need for a formal restraint prescription within 4 hours to manage the client's acute mania effectively.
3. A client requests the creation of a living will. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Schedule a meeting between the hospital ethics committee and the client
- B. Evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures
- C. Determine the client's preferences about post-mortem care
- D. Request a conference with the client's family
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client requests the creation of a living will is to evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures. This step is crucial to ensure that the client is well-informed about their options before making decisions regarding their future care. Scheduling a meeting with the hospital ethics committee (choice A) may not be necessary at this stage and could overwhelm the client. Determining the client's preferences about post-mortem care (choice C) is not directly related to creating a living will. Requesting a conference with the client's family (choice D) may be important later but is not the initial step in this situation.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Bananas
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Whole wheat bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Ammonia 75 mcg/dL
- B. Sodium 142 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.
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