a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels which of the following statements by th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A healthcare provider is educating a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because consuming more simple carbohydrates when blood glucose levels are low can cause a rapid spike in blood sugar levels, leading to potential complications. Clients with type 2 diabetes should eat complex carbohydrates or foods that help stabilize blood sugar levels when experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate understanding of monitoring blood glucose levels regularly, not stopping insulin without consulting a healthcare provider, and adhering to insulin therapy even when feeling well, which are all appropriate actions for managing diabetes.

2. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

5. Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.

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