ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Yellow-tinged vision.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Hypertension.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity due to its effect on the eyes. It can cause a yellow or green visual halo around objects. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypertension are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia may be a sign of digoxin's therapeutic effect in heart failure, while constipation and hypertension are not commonly associated with digoxin toxicity.
2. The client being seen in a physician’s office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The nurse writes down which of the following instructions for the client to follow before the test?
- A. Fast for 8 hours before the test
- B. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
- C. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled.
- D. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fasting for 8 hours ensures that the stomach is empty, which is necessary for an accurate barium swallow test.
3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. What instruction should be included by the nurse during discharge?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid sun exposure.
- D. Limit fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase intake of foods high in potassium. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion. Increasing the intake of foods rich in potassium can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination. Choice C is irrelevant to the medication. Choice D is also incorrect as Furosemide is a diuretic and may require increased, not limited, fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
4. During a change-of-shift report, a nurse is receiving information about an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?
- A. The client's oxygen saturation is 95%
- B. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg
- C. The client has a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F)
- D. The client's heart rate is 88/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and stable. Reporting this information is crucial to monitor the client's condition postoperatively. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F) is normal, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the expected range for an adult female client, so these values do not raise concerns that require immediate reporting.
5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse take while caring for this client?
- A. Advise the client to use the pump sparingly to prevent addiction
- B. Encourage the client to use the PCA before dressing changes
- C. Encourage the client's family to administer PCA while the client is sleeping
- D. Increase the client's 4-hour limit as needed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because encouraging the client to use the PCA before dressing changes helps in managing pain proactively. Choice A is incorrect as PCA is a safe method of pain control when used appropriately, and the nurse should not suggest using it sparingly. Choice C is incorrect as only the client should operate the PCA to ensure they are in control of their pain management. Choice D is incorrect as changing the PCA limit without proper assessment and orders from the healthcare provider can lead to adverse effects.
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