ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is below the normal range and indicates hypokalemia, which should be reported to the provider. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not critically high. A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range. A serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL is also within the normal range.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Gastric residual of 200 mL or more
- B. pH of gastric contents is 5.0
- C. Bowel sounds are present in all quadrants
- D. Temperature 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.
3. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
5. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
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