Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, an older adult client's son reports that the client has been sick with a respiratory illness for the past 6 days. Which of the following assessment findings is a manifestation of pneumonia in the older adult client?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Night sweats
• C. Confusion
• D. Narrowed pulse pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Confusion is a common manifestation of pneumonia in older adults. It can result from inadequate oxygenation to the brain due to respiratory compromise. Bradycardia, night sweats, and narrowed pulse pressure are not typically specific findings associated with pneumonia and should be further assessed or monitored, but confusion is a key indicator that warrants immediate attention.

2. A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Perform suctioning for up to four passes.
• B. Apply suction to the catheter when advancing it into the trachea.
• C. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
• D. Limit each suction pass to 25 seconds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

3. While caring for a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation, which intervention should the nurse NOT implement to prevent complications?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30�.
• B. Verify the prescribed ventilator settings daily.
• C. Administer pantoprazole as prescribed.
• D. Reposition the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice and can increase the risk of complications, such as accidental extubation or damage to the airway. The endotracheal tube should remain in the initial correct position to ensure proper ventilation and prevent harm to the client. Elevating the head of the bed, verifying ventilator settings, and administering pantoprazole as prescribed are all appropriate interventions to prevent complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation.

4. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

5. While caring for a client with extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest, which risk should the nurse prioritize for assessment and intervention?

• A. Airway obstruction
• B. Infection
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Paralytic ileus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client sustains burns to the head, neck, or chest, the risk of airway obstruction is a critical concern due to potential swelling, inflammation, or inhalation injury. Any compromise to the airway can lead to severe respiratory distress or failure. Early recognition and intervention to maintain a clear airway are essential to prevent life-threatening complications in burn patients.

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