Nursing Elites

1. You are the nurse caring for a patient who is to receive IV daunorubicin, a chemotherapeutic agent. You start the infusion and check the insertion site as per protocol. During your most recent check, you note that the IV has infiltrated so you stop the infusion. What is your main concern with this infiltration?

• A. Extravasation of the medication
• B. Discomfort to the patient
• C. Blanching at the site
• D. Hypersensitivity reaction to the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

2. During a visit to an 84-year-old woman recovering from hip surgery, the nurse notices signs of confusion and poor skin turgor. The woman mentions she limits water intake to avoid nighttime bathroom trips. The nurse should explain to the woman that:

• A. She will need her medications adjusted and be readmitted for a complete workup.
• B. Limiting fluids can lead to body imbalances causing confusion; perhaps adjusting fluid intake timing is necessary.
• C. Post-surgical confusion is common, and it's safe not to urinate at night.
• D. Confusion after surgery is typical in the elderly due to sleep loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In elderly patients, fluid and electrolyte imbalances can manifest with subtle signs like confusion. Limiting fluids can lead to such imbalances, affecting cognitive function. Adjusting the timing of fluid intake can help maintain hydration without causing nighttime disruptions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests unnecessary hospital readmission and medication adjustments without addressing the root cause. Choice C wrongly normalizes the confusion and fails to address the potential issue of fluid restriction. Choice D incorrectly attributes confusion solely to sleep loss without considering the impact of fluid balance.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?

• A. Depth of respirations
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Grip strength
• D. Electrocardiography

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Depth of respirations.' In a client with electrolyte imbalances like low potassium (hypokalemia) and low magnesium (hypomagnesemia), respiratory changes, such as shallow respirations or respiratory muscle weakness, can occur and lead to respiratory compromise. Assessing the depth of respirations is crucial to evaluate respiratory function in this client. Bowel sounds, grip strength, and electrocardiography are also important assessments in different situations, but in this case, respiratory assessment takes priority due to the potential impact of electrolyte imbalances on breathing.

4. You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Increased DTRs
• D. Shallow respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. A 73-year-old man who slipped on a small carpet in his home and fell on his hip is alert and oriented; PERRLA (pupils equally round and reactive to light and accommodation) is intact, and he has come by ambulance to the emergency department (ED). Heart rate elevated, he is anxious and thirsty. A Foley catheter is in place and 40mL of urine is present. The nurse's most likely explanation for the urine output is:

• A. The man urinated prior to his arrival in the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept in place.
• B. The man has a brain injury, lacks ADH, and needs vasopressin.
• C. The man is in heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide, which results in decreased urine output.
• D. He is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that results in diminished urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely cause of the lower urine output. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no indication of urination prior to arrival, brain injury, lack of ADH, or heart failure present in the scenario provided. The symptoms and context described point more towards a physiological response related to the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system rather than the other conditions mentioned.

Similar Questions