Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Serum calcium level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.

2. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

• A. Dysphagia
• B. Hoarseness
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the provider hears the following sound. What action by the provider is most appropriate?

• A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• B. Call the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Have the client sit upright.
• D. Listen to the client's lung sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The sound described is an S3 heart sound, which can indicate heart failure. The next appropriate action for the provider is to listen to the client's lung sounds. Lung sounds can provide additional information about the client's condition, especially when abnormal heart sounds are present. Calling the Rapid Response Team is not warranted based solely on the heart sound assessment. Having the client sit upright is not directly related to addressing the abnormal heart sound.

4. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
• B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
• C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
• D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.

5. A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is a natural process of life.

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