ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Serum sodium level
- C. Serum calcium level
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.
2. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?
- A. Attending a class on tracheostomy care
- B. Verbally explaining all steps in the procedure
- C. Performing the procedure independently
- D. Asking relevant questions about suctioning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.
3. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving dietary teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat 3 balanced meals each day.
- B. Limit fluid intake with meals.
- C. Reduce sodium intake.
- D. Take a bronchodilator 1 hour before eating.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, limiting fluid intake with meals can help reduce the risk of bloating and feeling too full, which can make breathing more difficult due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. It is important to encourage a balanced diet with appropriate fluid intake between meals to maintain hydration and proper nutrition. Options A, C, and D are not specifically related to dietary recommendations for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
5. A nurse cares for a female client who has a family history of cystic fibrosis. The client asks, Will my children have cystic fibrosis? How should the nurse respond?
- A. Since many of your family members are carriers, your children will also be carriers of the gene.
- B. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. If you are a carrier, your children will have the disorder.
- C. Since you have a family history of cystic fibrosis, I would encourage you & your partner to be tested.
- D. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a protein that controls the movement of chloride. Adjusting your diet will decrease the spread of this disorder.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder in which both gene alleles must be mutated for the disorder to be expressed. The nurse should encourage both the client & partner to be tested for the abnormal gene. The other statements are not true.
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