Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Serum calcium level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.

2. After a thoracentesis, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action?

• A. The client rates pain as 5/10 at the site of the procedure.
• B. A small amount of drainage is noted from the site.
• C. Pulse oximetry reads 93% on 2 liters of oxygen.
• D. The trachea is deviated toward the opposite side of the neck.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A deviated trachea indicates a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. This condition can rapidly lead to respiratory failure and requires immediate intervention. The other assessment findings, such as pain level, mild drainage, and slightly decreased oxygen saturation, are within an expected range after a thoracentesis and do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life.

3. A client has a tracheostomy tube in place. When the nurse suctions the client, food particles are noted. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Elevate the head of the client's bed.
• B. Measure and compare cuff pressures.
• C. Place the client on NPO status.
• D. Request a swallow study for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When food particles are noted during suctioning of a client with a tracheostomy tube, it can indicate tracheomalacia due to constant pressure from the tracheostomy cuff. This condition may lead to dilation of the tracheal passage. To address this issue, the nurse should measure and compare cuff pressures. By monitoring these pressures and comparing them to previous readings, the nurse can identify trends and potential complications. Elevating the head of the bed, placing the client on NPO status, and requesting a swallow study will not directly address the cuff pressure issue causing food particles in the secretions.

4. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts about 3-5 minutes
• D. Relieved by taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pain of an MI is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. It typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI occurs without a known cause such as exertion.

5. A nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet?

• A. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce
• B. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes
• C. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas
• D. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats & red meat, high in vegetables & whole grains (fiber), low in salt, & low in trans-fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli & tomatoes. The French fries have too much fat & the iceberg lettuce has little fiber. The catfish is fried. The spaghetti dinner has too much red meat & no vegetables.

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