Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Serum calcium level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.

2. A client with COPD is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day
• B. Provide the client with a low-protein diet
• C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity
• D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In COPD, pursed-lip breathing helps improve breathing efficiency by maintaining positive pressure in the airways, preventing airway collapse, and promoting oxygenation. This technique assists in controlling respiratory rate, reducing dyspnea, and enhancing oxygen saturation levels. Restricting fluid intake is not typically a part of COPD management. Providing a low-protein diet is not a standard intervention for COPD. Early-morning hours are generally not recommended for exercise due to cooler temperatures and higher pollution levels, which can exacerbate COPD symptoms.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
• B. Heberden's nodes
• C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
• D. Pain that worsens with activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.

4. A client has a pleural chest tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment?

• A. Never strip the tubing to maintain patency.
• B. Secure tubing junctions with tape to prevent accidental disconnections.
• C. Set wall suction at the level recommended by the device manufacturer.
• D. Keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system is interrupted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe use of a pleural chest tube, the nurse should keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system becomes dislodged or is interrupted. Stripping the tubing should never be done to maintain patency. Tubing junctions should be secured with tape, not clamps. Wall suction should be set at the level recommended by the device manufacturer, not the provider.

5. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

• A. Dysphagia
• B. Hoarseness
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

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