ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy may indicate respiratory depression, necessitating immediate intervention. An oxygen saturation of 91%, client reports of shortness of breath, and use of accessory muscles are expected in COPD clients.
2. A client who had coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday needs care. What actions can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (SATA)
- A. administer antibiotics every 4 hrs
- B. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours.
- C. Ensure the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices.
- D. Have the client rate pain on a 0-to-10 scale and report to the nurse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse can delegate tasks such as assisting the client to get up in the chair or ambulate to the bathroom, applying TED hose or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Using the spirometer should be encouraged every hour the day after surgery by the nurse. Assessing pain using a 0-to-10 scale is a nursing assessment. However, if the client reports pain, the UAP should inform the nurse for a more detailed assessment.
3. A healthcare professional assesses a client's respiratory status. Which information is of highest priority for the healthcare professional to obtain?
- A. Average daily fluid intake
- B. Neck circumference
- C. Height & weight
- D. Occupation & hobbies
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Obtaining information about a client's occupation and hobbies is crucial when assessing respiratory status as many respiratory problems can result from chronic exposure to inhalation irritants related to these activities. Understanding the client's potential exposure can help the healthcare professional identify risk factors and provide appropriate interventions to promote respiratory health.
4. A client with asthma has developed viral pharyngitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Petechiae on the chest and abdomen
- B. WBC 16,000/mm3
- C. Negative throat culture
- D. Severe hyperemia of pharyngeal mucosa
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Viral pharyngitis is typically caused by a virus, not bacteria, so a negative throat culture is an expected finding. The presence of petechiae on the chest and abdomen (Choice A) is not a common manifestation of viral pharyngitis. Elevated WBC count (Choice B) is more indicative of a bacterial infection rather than a viral one. Severe hyperemia of the pharyngeal mucosa (Choice D) is a possible finding in pharyngitis but is not specific to viral pharyngitis.
5. A client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
- B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air is to initiate oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation levels. Oxygen therapy is crucial to address hypoxemia promptly. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position can also aid in oxygenation, but administering oxygen takes precedence. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, it is a secondary action after ensuring the client's immediate need for oxygen is met. Documenting the finding in the client's medical record is necessary for continuity of care but is not the primary intervention when addressing hypoxemia.
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