Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.

2. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school-age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give?

• A. Administer the feeding over 30 minutes
• B. Place the child in a supine position after the feeding
• C. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days
• D. Warm the formula in the microwave prior to administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the feeding over 30 minutes. This slow administration helps prevent complications like nausea. Placing the child in a supine position after the feeding can increase the risk of aspiration, making choice B incorrect. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days is important for infection control and hygiene but is not directly related to the administration process, making choice C incorrect. Warming the formula in the microwave is not recommended as it can create hot spots that may burn the child's mouth or esophagus, so choice D is incorrect.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• C. Avoid potassium supplements while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience a persistent, dry cough while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Warmth and redness in the calf
• D. Pink-tinged urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, warmth and redness in the calf. These symptoms may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication following hip arthroplasty that requires immediate attention. A heart rate of 90/min and blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an urgent issue. Pink-tinged urine may suggest blood in the urine, which should be monitored but is not as critical as the potential DVT.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased WBC count.
• B. Decreased hemoglobin.
• C. Decreased platelet count.
• D. Positive rheumatoid factor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive rheumatoid factor. A positive rheumatoid factor is a common laboratory finding in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, indicating an autoimmune response. Option A, increased WBC count, is not typically associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B, decreased hemoglobin, and option C, decreased platelet count, are not specific laboratory findings for rheumatoid arthritis.

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