ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
- B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
- C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
- D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.
2. A client who is 2 hours postoperative following a kidney biopsy is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
- B. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
- C. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
- D. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range and should be reported following a kidney biopsy to check for bleeding. Decreased hemoglobin levels could indicate internal bleeding, which is a significant concern postoperatively. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is also within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. A respiratory rate of 16/min and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are both normal findings postoperatively.
3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a daily aspirin to prevent blood clots.
- B. I will call my provider if I experience swelling in my hands.
- C. I should increase my calcium intake to prevent seizures.
- D. I will restrict my protein intake to prevent further kidney damage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling in the hands is a potential sign of worsening preeclampsia, and the client should report this to their provider. Choice A is incorrect since aspirin is not recommended in preeclampsia. Choice C is incorrect as calcium intake is not directly related to preventing seizures in preeclampsia. Choice D is incorrect because protein restriction is not the standard management for preventing further kidney damage in preeclampsia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
- B. Turn the client every 4 hours
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.
5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Heart rate of 82/min
- C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
- D. Oxygen saturation 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.
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