ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
- B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
- C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
- D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.
2. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?
- A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
- B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
- C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
- D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.
3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.
4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient for infection post-surgery?
- A. Monitor the surgical site
- B. Monitor for fever
- C. Check blood pressure
- D. Check for redness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the surgical site is crucial to identify early signs of infection post-surgery. Redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge at the surgical site can indicate an infection. While monitoring for fever (choice B) is important as fever can also be a sign of infection, it may not always present immediately post-surgery. Checking blood pressure (choice C) is essential for other purposes but not specifically for monitoring infection post-surgery. Checking for redness (choice D) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection, so it is not as comprehensive as monitoring the surgical site.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Piloerection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.
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