ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client is being taught how to perform self-catheterization. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Clean the catheter with alcohol after each use.
- B. Perform self-catheterization while sitting on the toilet.
- C. Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.
- D. Lubricate the catheter tip with petroleum jelly before insertion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a new catheter each time you perform self-catheterization.' It is essential to use a new, sterile catheter each time to prevent infection during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the catheter with alcohol may not be sufficient to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect because self-catheterization is typically done in a clean, private area, not necessarily on the toilet. Choice D is incorrect because lubricating the catheter tip with petroleum jelly is a common practice but not as crucial as using a new catheter each time to prevent infection.
2. How should a healthcare professional administer a subcutaneous injection?
- A. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle
- C. Use a Z-track method
- D. Insert the needle at a 15-degree angle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for administering subcutaneous injections is to insert the needle at a 45-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the subcutaneous tissue, which is located just below the skin. Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, while using a Z-track method is specific to intramuscular injections to prevent leakage of medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle would not reach the subcutaneous tissue effectively.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider?
- A. WBC count 8,000/mm3
- B. Platelets 150,000/mm3
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase 10 units/L
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 75 mm/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr indicates inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated ESR levels are often seen in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Options A, B, and C are within the normal range and are not typically indicative of active inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated ESR level to the provider for further evaluation and management.
4. A client with a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Joint pain.
- B. Weight gain.
- C. Butterfly-shaped rash on the face.
- D. Increased appetite.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus due to fluid retention. Joint pain (choice A) is also common in SLE but is not specific to fluid retention. A butterfly-shaped rash on the face (choice C) is a classic symptom of SLE but is not related to fluid retention. Increased appetite (choice D) is less likely in SLE compared to weight gain.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
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