ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is admitting a toddler to the hospital after an Acetaminophen overdose. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Acetylcysteine
- B. Pegfilgrastim
- C. Misoprostol
- D. Naltrexone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which is depleted in cases of acetaminophen overdose, thus preventing liver damage. Pegfilgrastim is a medication used to stimulate white blood cell production, misoprostol is a medication used to prevent gastric ulcers, and naltrexone is used in the management of opioid addiction and alcohol dependence, which are not indicated in the scenario described.
2. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim to treat neutropenia. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.
- B. This medication will help reduce your risk of infection.
- C. This medication will help improve your red blood cell count.
- D. This medication will help increase your platelet count.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that 'This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.' Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to increase the white blood cell count. This increase in white blood cells helps reduce the risk of infections in clients with neutropenia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Filgrastim specifically targets white blood cells, not red blood cells or platelets.
3. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication with milk.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. Instruct the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption and avoid interactions with food or beverages that may decrease absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking Ferrous sulfate with milk can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to taking it before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of Ferrous sulfate.
4. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.
5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Nifedipine?
- A. Angina
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fluid retention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used in the management of angina and hypertension. It is not typically used to treat arrhythmias or fluid retention. Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, and hypertension is high blood pressure. Therefore, fluid retention is the condition that is not treated with Nifedipine.
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