Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Expect a rapid heart rate.
• B. Take the medication with meals.
• C. Report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client about Metoclopramide is to report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements. Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness or involuntary movements. It is essential for clients to notify their healthcare provider if they experience these symptoms to receive appropriate management.

2. When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, what should the healthcare provider monitor the client's urine for?

• A. Bilirubin
• B. Protein
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring urine for calcium is essential. Somatropin can lead to increased calcium levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of renal calculi formation. Therefore, assessing for calcium in the urine helps in early detection and prevention of this complication. Monitoring for bilirubin, protein, or potassium in the urine is not directly related to the effects of Somatropin and would not provide relevant information in this context.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

4. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?

• A. I am frequently constipated.
• B. I have been urinating more frequently.
• C. My skin is peeling.
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

5. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

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