ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Absence of clonus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Report of headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.
2. A client is admitted to the emergency room with a respiratory rate of 7/min. Arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal the following values. Which of the following is an appropriate analysis of the ABGs? pH 7.22, PaCO2 68 mm Hg, Base excess -2, PaO2 78 mm Hg, Saturation 80%, Bicarbonate 26 mEq/L
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Metabolic alkalosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The ABG values provided indicate respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increase in PaCO2 above the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). In this case, the pH is 7.22 (below normal) with an elevated PaCO2 of 68 mm Hg. The other values do not suggest metabolic acidosis (which would typically show low bicarbonate levels) or metabolic alkalosis. Therefore, the correct interpretation of the ABGs is respiratory acidosis.
3. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
- B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
- C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
- D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
4. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Examination to determine cervical status
- B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
- C. Initiation of pushing
- D. Preparation for cesarean birth
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.
5. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
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