Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is administering metformin to a client with type 2 diabetes. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Lactic acidosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use. Metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diarrhea is a common gastrointestinal side effect of metformin but is not as serious as lactic acidosis, which requires immediate medical attention.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving gentamicin therapy. Which of the following client assessments is a priority for the healthcare professional to monitor for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Urinary output
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hearing acuity. Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic, which means it can cause damage to the auditory system leading to hearing loss. Monitoring hearing acuity is crucial to detect early signs of hearing impairment. Monitoring urinary output (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to gentamicin's adverse effects. Monitoring serum glucose (choice B) and respiratory rate (choice C) are not specifically associated with gentamicin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse take while caring for this client?

• A. Advise the client to use the pump sparingly to prevent addiction
• B. Encourage the client to use the PCA before dressing changes
• C. Encourage the client's family to administer PCA while the client is sleeping
• D. Increase the client's 4-hour limit as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because encouraging the client to use the PCA before dressing changes helps in managing pain proactively. Choice A is incorrect as PCA is a safe method of pain control when used appropriately, and the nurse should not suggest using it sparingly. Choice C is incorrect as only the client should operate the PCA to ensure they are in control of their pain management. Choice D is incorrect as changing the PCA limit without proper assessment and orders from the healthcare provider can lead to adverse effects.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?

• A. INR
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. aPTT
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer bisacodyl suppository to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Don sterile gloves
• B. Lubricate index finger
• C. Use a rectal applicator for insertion
• D. Position client supine with knees bent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when administering a bisacodyl suppository is to lubricate the index finger for easier insertion. Using a rectal applicator for insertion is not recommended for bisacodyl suppositories. Positioning the client supine with knees bent is not necessary for the administration of a bisacodyl suppository. While wearing gloves is important for infection control, sterile gloves are not required for this procedure.

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