ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client in the intensive care unit is receiving teaching before removal of an endotracheal tube. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Rest in a side-lying position after the tube is removed.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer every 4 hours after the tube is removed.
- C. Avoid speaking for extended periods.
- D. Vital signs will be monitored by a nurse every 15 minutes in the first hour after the tube is removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is essential to advise the client to avoid speaking for extended periods after the removal of the endotracheal tube to prevent strain on the vocal cords and allow the airway to recover. Speaking for prolonged periods can lead to irritation and potentially affect the healing process. The other options are also important post-extubation instructions, such as using the incentive spirometer to maintain lung function, positioning in a side-lying position for comfort, and frequent monitoring of vital signs to ensure the client's stability.
2. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about nutrition, what information should be included? (Select all that apply)
- A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
- B. Rest before meals if experiencing dyspnea.
- C. Have about six small meals a day.
- D. Eat high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client with COPD about nutrition, it is important to consider factors that can impact breathing and digestion. Avoiding drinking fluids just before and during meals can help prevent bloating, which may impede breathing. Resting before meals if experiencing dyspnea can aid in reducing respiratory effort during eating. Having about six small meals a day can help prevent overeating and decrease the feeling of fullness, promoting easier breathing. However, it is crucial to be cautious with high-fiber foods as they can produce gas, leading to abdominal bloating and increased shortness of breath. Clients with COPD should focus on increasing calorie and protein intake to prevent malnourishment. It is advisable not to increase carbohydrate intake as this can elevate carbon dioxide production and exacerbate breathing difficulties.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the provider place at the client's bedside?
- A. Bag valve mask device
- B. Defibrillator machine
- C. Chest tube equipment
- D. Central venous catheter tray
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client receives a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent, it can lead to respiratory muscle paralysis. Placing a bag valve mask device at the client's bedside is crucial for providing immediate respiratory support in case of respiratory depression or failure. This device allows manual ventilation by squeezing the bag to deliver breaths to the client. The other options, such as a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, and central venous catheter tray, are not directly related to managing respiratory complications associated with neuromuscular blockade.
4. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
- B. Daily physical therapy activities.
- C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.
5. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?
- A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
- B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
- C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
- D. 1700 (5:00 PM)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access