Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

• A. 4,500/mm³
• B. 7,000/mm³
• C. 10,000/mm³
• D. 25,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of a new prescription of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The healthcare professional should not concentrate on which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Fluid retention
• D. Black, tarry stools

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, to a client with COPD, the healthcare professional should be aware of potential adverse effects. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone use. The correct adverse effects to monitor for include hypokalemia, fluid retention, and gastrointestinal issues like black, tarry stools due to potential gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not concentrate on tachycardia but should focus on the other listed adverse effects when administering prednisone to a client with COPD.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis and has been placed on a multi-medication regimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client related to ethambutol?

• A. Your urine can turn a dark orange.
• B. Watch for a change in the sclera of your eyes.
• C. Watch for any changes in vision.
• D. Take vitamin B6 daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with potential vision changes, including optic neuritis. Patients should be instructed to report any visual disturbances immediately to prevent permanent vision loss. Monitoring for changes in vision is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on and prevent serious complications.

4. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?

• A. Have suction equipment available for use
• B. Feed the client thickened liquids
• C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
• D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.

5. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?

• A. Oxygen equipment
• B. Incentive spirometer
• C. Pulse oximeter
• D. Sterile dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.

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