ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
2. Which of the following is included in Orem’s theory?
- A. Maintenance of a sufficient intake of air
- B. Self-perception
- C. Love and belonging
- D. Physiological needs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orem's theory, also known as the Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory, focuses on individuals' ability to perform self-care to maintain health and well-being. One specific component of this theory is the maintenance of a sufficient intake of air, which is crucial for sustaining life and overall health. Option A is the correct choice as it directly relates to meeting physiological needs, such as the intake of air, to support optimal functioning and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically align with Orem's emphasis on self-care and meeting physiological requirements.
3. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
4. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen equipment
- B. Incentive spirometer
- C. Pulse oximeter
- D. Sterile dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.
5. What is the appropriate route of administration for insulin?
- A. Intramuscular
- B. Intradermal
- C. Subcutaneous
- D. Intravenous
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate route of administration for insulin is subcutaneous. Subcutaneous injections are commonly used for insulin administration due to the slower absorption rate compared to intramuscular or intravenous routes. This slower absorption rate allows for better control of blood glucose levels. Intramuscular administration is not ideal for insulin as it can lead to rapid absorption and fluctuations in blood sugar levels. Intradermal injections are shallow and used for skin testing rather than insulin administration. Intravenous administration of insulin is not recommended due to the rapid and unpredictable effects it can have on blood glucose levels.
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