ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
1. While teaching a newly hired nurse about varicella, a nurse in a pediatric clinic should include which of the following information?
- A. Children who have varicella are contagious until vesicles are crusted.
- B. Children who have varicella should receive the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine.
- C. Children who have varicella should be placed in airborne precautions.
- D. Children who have varicella are contagious 1-2 days before the rash appears.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Children with varicella (chickenpox) are contagious until all vesicles are crusted over. The contagious period starts 1-2 days before the rash appears and continues until all lesions are dried and crusted. It is important to educate healthcare providers about the contagious period to prevent the spread of the virus to susceptible individuals.
2. A client has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis and has been placed on a multi-medication regimen. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client related to ethambutol?
- A. Your urine can turn a dark orange.
- B. Watch for a change in the sclera of your eyes.
- C. Watch for any changes in vision.
- D. Take vitamin B6 daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ethambutol is associated with potential vision changes, including optic neuritis. Patients should be instructed to report any visual disturbances immediately to prevent permanent vision loss. Monitoring for changes in vision is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on and prevent serious complications.
3. A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?
- A. Oxygen equipment
- B. Incentive spirometer
- C. Pulse oximeter
- D. Sterile dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.
4. During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to assume which position?
- A. Sitting
- B. Standing
- C. Genupectoral
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a Romberg test, the patient is asked to stand with feet together and arms at the sides. The test evaluates proprioception and vestibular function by assessing the patient's ability to maintain balance with eyes closed. Asking the patient to stand helps to detect any balance issues or disturbances in the absence of visual input.
5. What is another name for the knee-chest position?
- A. Genu-dorsal
- B. Genu-pectoral
- C. Lithotomy
- D. Sim’s
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.
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