Nursing Elites

1. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Lie on their left side.
• B. Use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Cough at regular intervals.
• D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

2. A caregiver is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The caregiver asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?

• A. Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears
• B. Your baby needs an IV because her fontanels are bulging
• C. Your baby needs an IV because she is breathing slower than normal
• D. Your baby needs an IV because her heart rate is decreasing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears.' In infants, the inability to produce tears is a sign of severe dehydration. This is a crucial indication for the need for intravenous (IV) fluid therapy to rehydrate the infant. While the other options may also be symptoms of dehydration, the absence of tears is a more direct and specific indicator requiring immediate attention and intervention.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
• B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
• C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
• D. A client who has dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.

4. Which deficiency is most commonly seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder?

• A. Thiamine
• B. Riboflavin
• C. Pyridoxine
• D. Pantothenic acid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, is the most common vitamin deficiency seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to decreased thiamine absorption and utilization, as well as poor dietary intake. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological complications, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, making it essential to address thiamine supplementation in individuals with alcohol use disorder.

5. When caring for a client who is to have a line placed for hemodynamic monitoring, which statement by the newly licensed nurse indicates effectiveness of the teaching?

• A. Air should be instilled into the monitoring system after the procedure.
• B. The client should be positioned on the left side after the procedure.
• C. The transducer should be level with the second intercostal space after the line is placed.
• D. A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a line is placed for hemodynamic monitoring, it is crucial to confirm its correct placement. The definitive way to verify the placement is through a chest x-ray. This ensures that the line is appropriately positioned without complications. Options A, B, and C do not address the essential step of confirming the line's placement, making them incorrect choices.

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