Nursing Elites

1. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Lie on their left side.
• B. Use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Cough at regular intervals.
• D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

2. A client is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prime IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. Use a 24-gauge IV catheter
• C. Obtain filterless IV tubing
• D. Place blood in the warmer for 1 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prior to administering a blood transfusion, it is essential to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent hemolysis of the blood cells. Using a smaller gauge IV catheter (e.g., 20 or 22 gauge) is recommended for blood transfusions to prevent hemolysis. Filterless IV tubing is contraindicated for blood transfusions as it does not have a filter to trap potential blood clots or debris. Warming blood is unnecessary and could lead to the development of bacteria in the blood product. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.

3. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?

• A. Non-rebreather mask
• B. Venturi mask
• C. Nasal cannula
• D. Simple face mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.

4. Which of the following techniques involves the sense of sight?

• A. Inspection
• B. Palpation
• C. Percussion
• D. Auscultation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Inspection (Choice A). Inspection is a technique that involves observing the patient using the sense of sight. During inspection, a healthcare provider visually examines the patient for any abnormalities, changes, or specific signs that may help in diagnosing a condition. Palpation (Choice B) involves using the sense of touch to feel for abnormalities. Percussion (Choice C) involves tapping the body to produce sounds that can help identify the underlying structures. Auscultation (Choice D) involves listening to sounds produced by the body, typically using a stethoscope. Therefore, in this context, the technique that specifically involves the sense of sight is Inspection.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
• B. FACES pain scale.
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

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