Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
• C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
• D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

2. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

3. A client has a new prescription for Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Maintain a fluid restriction while taking it.
• C. Take it with food.
• D. Stop taking it when manifestations subside.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take it with food.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause gastrointestinal upset, and taking it with food helps reduce the risk of stomach irritation. It should not be taken on an empty stomach. Maintaining good hydration is important to prevent kidney-related side effects, so maintaining a fluid restriction, as in choice B, is not appropriate. Additionally, stopping the medication when manifestations subside, as in choice D, is incorrect as antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the infection and to prevent antibiotic resistance.

4. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.

5. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Similar Questions