a nurse in a providers office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a na
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

2. A client is prescribed albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol can cause tremors as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness and preparedness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, limiting caffeine intake, or taking it at bedtime are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of albuterol like tremors.

3. What is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath as it helps alleviate the symptoms and improve oxygenation. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen levels in the body, which can be a life-threatening situation. Administering bronchodilators (choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma but is not the initial intervention for all causes of shortness of breath. Repositioning the patient (choice C) can sometimes help improve breathing, but in a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, immediate oxygen therapy is crucial. Providing IV fluids (choice D) is not indicated as the first-line intervention for shortness of breath unless there is a specific underlying cause such as dehydration.

4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.

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