Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient�s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the child to sleep for 8 hours each night.
• B. Perform range-of-motion exercises once per week.
• C. Give your child NSAIDs on a regular schedule.
• D. Apply heat to the child's affected joints twice daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the parent to give the child NSAIDs on a regular schedule to maintain therapeutic levels and control pain.

3. A nasogastric tube for suction is ordered for a neonate diagnosed with a diaphragmatic hernia. Which complication related to gastric drainage is the priority when planning care for this neonate?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Dehydration
• D. Hyperbilirubinemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is the priority complication to consider when a neonate with a diaphragmatic hernia is placed on gastric suction. Prolonged gastric drainage can lead to the loss of stomach acids, resulting in metabolic alkalosis, which can have serious consequences for the neonate's health.

4. Which statement best reflects a top-down approach to the evaluation process?

• A. OT focuses on evaluating the child's poor performance in hand skills
• B. OT conducts an assessment to determine a motor age for fine motor and gross motor skills
• C. OT initiates by interviewing the family about routines, interests, and daily habits
• D. OT starts by assessing muscle tone, postural control, and range of motion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A top-down evaluation approach in occupational therapy begins with understanding the child's daily life, family routines, interests, and habits to ensure that the therapy provided is relevant and meaningful within the child's natural environment. By initiating the evaluation process with family interviews to gather contextual information, the occupational therapist gains a comprehensive view of the child's life, which allows for a more holistic and client-centered approach. Choice A focuses solely on the child's poor performance in hand skills, which is more characteristic of a bottom-up approach. Choice B mentions determining a motor age, which is not necessarily aligned with a top-down assessment. Choice D emphasizes physical assessments like muscle tone and range of motion, which are important but do not capture the essence of a top-down approach that considers the child's environment and routines.

5. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

Similar Questions