Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient’s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

2. The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?

• A. Passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion
• B. Oxygen at 2 L nasal cannula to maintain saturation above 95%
• C. Hourly vital signs and neurologic checks
• D. Elevate head of bed 30 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Dress the infant in light, breathable clothing.
• B. Turn and reposition the infant every 4 hours.
• C. Offer the infant frequent, small feedings.
• D. Avoid using lotions on the infant's skin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Turning and repositioning the infant every 4 hours is essential to prevent pressure sores and ensure uniform exposure to phototherapy. This practice helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures the effectiveness of the phototherapy in treating hyperbilirubinemia. Dressing the infant in light, breathable clothing (Choice A) is generally a good practice but not directly related to the effectiveness of phototherapy. Offering frequent, small feedings (Choice C) is important for infant nutrition but does not directly impact the phototherapy. Avoiding lotions on the infant's skin (Choice D) is recommended to prevent interference with the phototherapy but is not the most critical action to include in the care plan.

4. A newborn diagnosed with an omphalocele defect is admitted to the intensive care nursery. Which nursing action is appropriate based on the current data?

• A. Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer
• B. Placing the newborn in an open crib
• C. Preparing the newborn for phototherapy
• D. Preparing the newborn for bottle-feeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the newborn on a radiant warmer is appropriate as it helps maintain the body temperature and prevent hypothermia in a newborn with an omphalocele defect. This is crucial for the infant's well-being and supports their physiological stability.

5. A healthcare professional is performing hearing screenings for children at a community health fair. Which of the following children should the professional refer to a provider for a more extensive hearing evaluation?

• A. A toddler who is 18 months old and has unintelligible speech
• B. An infant who is 3 months old and has an exaggerated startle response
• C. A preschooler who is 4 years old and prefers playing with others rather than alone
• D. An infant who is 8 months old and is not yet making babbling sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should refer an infant who is not making babbling sounds by the age of 7 months to a provider for a more extensive evaluation of hearing. Babbling sounds are a developmental milestone that typically occurs by 7 months of age. Delayed or absent babbling can indicate potential hearing issues that warrant further assessment.

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