Nursing Elites

1. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

2. During an assessment, which manifestation should a healthcare provider expect in an infant with pyloric stenosis?

• A. Bile-stained vomitus
• B. Distended abdomen
• C. Olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
• D. Painless, swollen joints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen due to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. This mass can often be palpated during an assessment and is a key characteristic of this condition. Bile-stained vomitus may be seen in conditions such as intestinal obstruction; a distended abdomen can be a nonspecific sign of various conditions, and painless, swollen joints are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis.

3. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate when assessing a child admitted to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS)?

• A. Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema
• B. Hematuria, bacteriuria, and weight gain
• C. Decreased urine specific gravity and increased urinary output
• D. Gross hematuria, albuminuria, and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. Proteinuria results from the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia. The low oncotic pressure due to hypoalbuminemia causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. These clinical manifestations are classic signs of MCNS and help differentiate it from other renal conditions.

4. A child is being cared for by a nurse and has rheumatic fever. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer aspirin to the child as prescribed based on the healthcare provider's instructions.
• B. Encourage adequate fluid intake for the child.
• C. Elevate the child's joints and provide warm compresses.
• D. Monitor the child's heart rate for dysrhythmias.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rheumatic fever can lead to cardiac complications, such as dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to monitor the child's heart rate closely for any signs of dysrhythmias. This will help in early identification and prompt management of potential cardiac issues associated with rheumatic fever. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority actions in this scenario. While aspirin may be used in the treatment of rheumatic fever, monitoring for cardiac complications takes precedence. Encouraging fluid intake and providing warm compresses are helpful interventions but do not directly address the cardiac risks associated with rheumatic fever.

5. A nurse assesses a male patient who has developed gynecomastia while receiving treatment for peptic ulcers. Which medication from the patient’s history should the nurse recognize as a contributing factor?

• A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
• B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
• C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
• D. Omeprazole (Prilosec)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cimetidine binds to androgen receptors, producing receptor blockade, which can cause enlarged breast tissue, reduced libido, and impotence. All these effects reverse when dosing stops. Amoxicillin, metronidazole, and omeprazole are not associated with gynecomastia.

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