Nursing Elites

1. Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?

• A. Level III
• B. Level I
• C. Level IV
• D. Level II

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Level IV. Level IV nurseries are equipped to provide the highest level of care, including complex surgical interventions for serious congenital or acquired malformations. These nurseries have the necessary resources and expertise to manage critical cases effectively. Choice A: Level III nurseries provide advanced care for moderately ill newborns but may not have the capacity for on-site surgical repair of serious malformations. Choice B: Level I nurseries offer basic care for healthy newborns and those with minor issues, lacking the resources for surgical interventions. Choice D: Level II nurseries can manage moderately ill newborns but may not have the capability for complex surgical interventions like Level IV nurseries.

2. A pediatric client is admitted to the emergency department with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) that caused a loss of consciousness. The last set of vital signs showed heart rate 48, blood pressure (BP) 148/74 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 and irregular. What does the nurse suspect based on these data?

• A. Spinal cord injury
• B. Increased intracranial pressure
• C. Typical for sleep
• D. Improvement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The vital signs of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations indicate increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia (heart rate of 48), hypertension (blood pressure of 148/74 mmHg), and irregular respirations are typical signs of increased intracranial pressure in a pediatric client with a traumatic brain injury and loss of consciousness.

3. A patient taking sildenafil (Viagra) asks a nurse what action to take if priapism occurs. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take an additional half-strength dose of sildenafil
• B. The condition usually resolves in 12 hours or less
• C. Wait until the following day and notify the doctor
• D. Seek emergency help, because permanent damage can occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients experiencing priapism from sildenafil should seek immediate medical attention. Priapism is a serious condition where an erection lasts longer than 4 hours, and if left untreated, it can lead to irreversible damage to the penile tissue, potentially causing permanent erectile dysfunction. Therefore, prompt intervention is crucial to prevent long-term complications.

4. In caring for an adolescent with severe abdominal pain due to appendicitis, where should the nurse identify as McBurney's point?

• A. Right lower quadrant
• B. Left lower quadrant
• C. Right upper quadrant
• D. Left upper quadrant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: McBurney's point is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, specifically between the umbilicus and the anterior iliac crest. This point is significant in diagnosing appendicitis, as tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis and indicates inflammation near the appendix. Therefore, the correct answer is the 'Right lower quadrant.' Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because McBurney's point is not located in the left lower quadrant, right upper quadrant, or left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

5. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

Similar Questions