Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant brought to the clinic due to diarrhea. The infant is alert but has dry mucous membranes. Which additional assessment data indicates to the healthcare provider that the infant is experiencing an early to moderate stage of dehydration?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Normal fontanels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia is a common early sign of dehydration in infants, especially when presenting with dry mucous membranes and diarrhea. The increased heart rate is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to dehydration. Bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and normal fontanels are not typically associated with early to moderate dehydration in infants.

2. Which law provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who are in need of comprehensive early intervention services?

• A. IDEA- Part B
• B. IDEA- Part A
• C. IFSP
• D. IDEA- Part C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, IDEA Part C. IDEA Part C specifically focuses on providing early intervention services to infants and toddlers with disabilities. This law ensures that children aged 0-2 receive the necessary support and services to aid in their development and address any disabilities or developmental delays early on. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. IDEA Part B pertains to services for school-aged children with disabilities, IDEA Part A does not exist in the context of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA), and IFSP stands for Individualized Family Service Plan, which is a document outlining services for children from birth to age 3 who are experiencing developmental delays or disabilities, but it is not a law in itself.

3. What does a Z-score of -3.00 indicate?

• A. The child's score indicates he is ahead of his peers and performing well
• B. The child's score places him within normal limits on this test item
• C. The test is inconclusive
• D. The child's score falls below the majority of his peers on this test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Z-score of -3.00 indicates that the child's performance is significantly below the average of their peers. It represents an extreme low score, indicating a substantial deviation from the mean performance of the group.

4. The healthcare provider is providing care to a child who was treated with aspirin during a viral infection. Which clinical manifestations should cause the healthcare provider concern?

• A. Nausea, vomiting, and confusion
• B. Headache, vomiting, and seizures
• C. Sore throat, moist respirations, and cough
• D. Fever, rash, and photophobia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and confusion are concerning as they are indicative of Reye's syndrome, a rare but serious condition associated with aspirin use in children during viral illnesses. Reye's syndrome can lead to severe complications, including brain and liver damage, hence prompt recognition and management are crucial.

5. While auscultating the lungs of an adolescent with asthma, what should the nurse identify the sound as?

• A. Biots respiration
• B. Chaney-Stokes respiration
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should identify the sound heard during auscultation as tachypnea, which is characterized by a rapid, regular breathing pattern. In the case of an adolescent with asthma, tachypnea can be indicative of increased work of breathing due to airway constriction and inflammation. Biots respiration (choice A) is characterized by an irregular pattern of breathing with periods of apnea. Chaney-Stokes respiration (choice B) is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to an abnormally slow breathing rate, which is not typically associated with asthma exacerbation.

Similar Questions