ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with emphysema is being assessed by a nurse. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased chest expansion
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Pursed-lip breathing
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a common manifestation in clients with emphysema. It helps to increase the duration of exhalation and reduce air trapping, aiding in the management of the condition. Decreased chest expansion and bradypnea are not typically associated with emphysema. While cyanosis can occur in severe cases, pursed-lip breathing is a more specific and commonly observed sign of emphysema.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight gain
- D. Productive cough with yellow sputum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In COPD, the client often develops a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. Decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typically associated with COPD. Weight loss is more common due to increased work of breathing and decreased energy expenditure in individuals with COPD.
3. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. Weight gain of 1 kg since the last dialysis session
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
- C. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is critically high and can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a common complication in clients with ESRD due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. High potassium levels can result in serious cardiac consequences such as arrhythmias, cardiac arrest, and death. Prompt action is necessary to prevent these severe complications.
4. A client who had coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday needs care. What actions can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (SATA)
- A. administer antibiotics every 4 hrs
- B. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours.
- C. Ensure the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices.
- D. Have the client rate pain on a 0-to-10 scale and report to the nurse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse can delegate tasks such as assisting the client to get up in the chair or ambulate to the bathroom, applying TED hose or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Using the spirometer should be encouraged every hour the day after surgery by the nurse. Assessing pain using a 0-to-10 scale is a nursing assessment. However, if the client reports pain, the UAP should inform the nurse for a more detailed assessment.
5. A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?
- A. Pain severity
- B. Wound drainage
- C. Tissue integrity
- D. Airway patency
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.
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