ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam
1. A newly graduated nurse in the hospital states that, since she is so new, she cannot participate in quality improvement (QI) projects. What response by the precepting nurse is best?
- A. All staff nurses are required to participate in quality improvement projects.
- B. Even as a new nurse, you can implement activities designed to improve care.
- C. It's easy to identify which indicators should be used to measure quality improvement.
- D. You should ask to be assigned to the research and quality committee.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response is to encourage the newly graduated nurse to actively participate in quality improvement initiatives. Being new does not preclude one from contributing to improving care processes and outcomes. By engaging in small activities focused on quality improvement, the new nurse can start making a positive impact and learn valuable skills early in their career.
2. A client is postoperative following an intermaxillary fixation due to multiple facial fractures. Which type of equipment should be at the client's bedside?
- A. Wire cutters
- B. NG tube
- C. Urinary catheter tray
- D. IV infusion pump
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who has undergone intermaxillary fixation for facial fractures, wire cutters are essential equipment to have at the bedside in case of emergencies such as airway compromise. These wire cutters allow prompt removal of the wires securing the jaw if needed to ensure adequate airway patency. NG tube, urinary catheter tray, and IV infusion pump are important pieces of equipment in various clinical scenarios but are not specifically required for managing intermaxillary fixation postoperatively.
3. A client with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
- B. Take aspirin for pain relief.
- C. Report any signs of bruising or bleeding to your healthcare provider.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 2 liters per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking warfarin, an anticoagulant, is to report any signs of bruising or bleeding to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial as these symptoms may indicate over-anticoagulation, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential to adjust the medication dosage or take appropriate measures to ensure the client's safety.
4. A client has a pleural chest tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment?
- A. Never strip the tubing to maintain patency.
- B. Secure tubing junctions with tape to prevent accidental disconnections.
- C. Set wall suction at the level recommended by the device manufacturer.
- D. Keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system is interrupted.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To ensure safe use of a pleural chest tube, the nurse should keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system becomes dislodged or is interrupted. Stripping the tubing should never be done to maintain patency. Tubing junctions should be secured with tape, not clamps. Wall suction should be set at the level recommended by the device manufacturer, not the provider.
5. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Apneustic respirations
- C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
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