Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?

• A. Pigeon
• B. Funnel
• C. Kyphotic
• D. Barrel

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?

• A. Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?
• B. Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?
• C. Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?
• D. Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.

3. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client has been NPO for 6 hours before the procedure.
• B. Administer pre-procedure medications as ordered.
• C. Verify that informed consent has been obtained.
• D. Assess the client for any allergies, especially to iodine or shellfish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client for allergies, particularly to iodine or shellfish, is crucial before a cardiac catheterization because the contrast dye used during the procedure can lead to allergic reactions. Identifying any allergies beforehand allows the healthcare team to take necessary precautions to prevent potential adverse reactions and ensure the client's safety.

4. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

5. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

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