Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?

• A. Pigeon
• B. Funnel
• C. Kyphotic
• D. Barrel

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

2. After a thoracentesis, a healthcare provider assesses a client. Which assessment finding warrants immediate action?

• A. The client rates pain as 5/10 at the site of the procedure.
• B. A small amount of drainage is noted from the site.
• C. Pulse oximetry reads 93% on 2 liters of oxygen.
• D. The trachea is deviated toward the opposite side of the neck.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A deviated trachea indicates a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency. This condition can rapidly lead to respiratory failure and requires immediate intervention. The other assessment findings, such as pain level, mild drainage, and slightly decreased oxygen saturation, are within an expected range after a thoracentesis and do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life.

3. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
• B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
• C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
• D. Monitor the client for headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.

4. A nurse is caring for four hospitalized clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as being at risk for fluid volume deficit?

• A. The client who has been NPO since midnight for endoscopy
• B. The client who has left-sided heart failure and has a brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 600 pg/mL
• C. The client who has end-stage renal failure and is scheduled for dialysis today
• D. The client who has gastroenteritis and is febrile

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroenteritis can lead to fluid loss through vomiting and diarrhea, especially when accompanied by fever. Fever can increase insensible water loss through sweating as well. Both vomiting and diarrhea can significantly contribute to fluid volume deficit, making the client with gastroenteritis and fever at higher risk compared to the other clients described in the options.

5. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Apneustic respirations
• C. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

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