ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?
- A. Pigeon
- B. Funnel
- C. Kyphotic
- D. Barrel
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
2. A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Give morphine IV.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy.
- C. Start an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's.
- D. Initiate cardiac monitoring.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.
3. A client is 1-day postoperative following a left lower lobectomy and has a chest tube in place. When assessing the client's three-chamber drainage system, the nurse notes that there is no bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Continue to monitor the client as this is an expected finding.
- B. Add more water to the suction control chamber of the drainage system.
- C. Verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for leaks.
- D. Milk the chest tube and dislodge any clots in the tubing that are occluding it.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a three-chamber chest drainage system, the absence of bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates that no suction is being applied to the chest tube. The nurse should first verify that the suction regulator is on and check the tubing for any leaks that may be causing the lack of suction. Adding more water to the chamber or milking the chest tube are inappropriate actions and could potentially harm the client. Monitoring the client without taking action could lead to complications if the chest tube is not functioning properly.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
5. While assessing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Lethargy
- B. High-grade fever
- C. Weight gain
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the nurse should expect lethargy as a common finding. Tuberculosis can cause fatigue and weakness due to the body's efforts to fight the infection. High-grade fever is another common symptom of tuberculosis, not weight gain or dry cough. Weight loss is more typical in tuberculosis due to decreased appetite and systemic effects of the infection. A persistent productive cough with sputum is more characteristic of tuberculosis rather than a dry cough.
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