a male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride proscar for benign prostatic hyperplasia bph what should the

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Exam

1. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?

A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.

2. A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?

A. Increased libido
B. Decreased muscle mass
C. Breast tenderness
D. Increased aggression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.

3. What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

A. A brain infection
B. Increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream
C. Decreased albumin blood levels
D. Untreated chronic bronchitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by increased ammonia levels in the bloodstream. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism normally processed by the liver, accumulates in the bloodstream when the liver is unable to function properly. This excess ammonia affects brain function, leading to symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. When preparing to administer parenteral acyclovir (Zovirax) to an 80-year-old patient with chronic renal failure and herpes simplex, what would the nurse expect in regard to the dose?

A. The dose is smaller due to the herpes simplex infection.
B. The dose is smaller based on the patient's kidney function.
C. The dose is higher in treating genital herpes.
D. The dose is higher if the creatinine clearance is above 4.0 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with chronic renal failure, especially in older adults, dosages of medications excreted renally need to be adjusted based on kidney function. Acyclovir is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so in a patient with chronic renal failure, the dose would need to be smaller to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because the dose adjustment is more related to the patient's kidney function than the presence of herpes simplex. Choice C is incorrect because the type of herpes infection does not determine the dose adjustment for acyclovir. Choice D is incorrect as the creatinine clearance is a more accurate measure of kidney function compared to creatinine levels.

5. How can a colony-stimulating factor affect the patient's erythrocyte count?

A. It stimulates the growth of red blood cells.
B. It suppresses T-cell production.
C. It inhibits protein synthesis.
D. It stimulates antibody production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Colony-stimulating factors are substances that stimulate the production of blood cells in the bone marrow. Erythrocytes are red blood cells, so a colony-stimulating factor would specifically stimulate the growth of red blood cells, leading to an increase in the patient's erythrocyte count. Choice B is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not suppress T-cell production. Choice C is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not inhibit protein synthesis. Choice D is incorrect because colony-stimulating factors do not stimulate antibody production; they primarily affect the production of blood cells.