ATI RN
Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions
1. A nurse is providing the client with biliary obstruction a simple overview of the anatomy of the liver and gallbladder. The nurse tells the client that normally the liver stores bile in the gallbladder, which is connected to the liver by the?
- A. Liver canaliculi
- B. Common bile duct
- C. Cystic duct
- D. Right hepatic duct.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The gallbladder receives bile from the liver through the cystic duct. The liver collects bile in the canaliculi. Bile then flows into the common hepatic duct. From the common hepatic duct, the bile can be stored in the gallbladder through the cystic duct. Otherwise, the bile can flow directly into the duodenum by way of the common bile duct.
2. The nurse assesses the client's understanding of the relationship between body position and gastroesophageal reflux. Which response would indicate that the client understands measures to avoid problems with reflux while sleeping?
- A. I can elevate the foot of the bed 4 to 6 inches.
- B. I can sleep on my stomach with my head turned to the left.
- C. I can sleep on my back without a pillow under my head.
- D. I can elevate the head of the bed 4 to 6 inches.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated encourages movement of food through the esophagus by gravity. By fostering esophageal acid clearance, gravity helps keep the acidic pepsin and alkaline biliary secretions from contacting the esophagus. Elevating the foot of the bed does not affect clearance of esophageal acid. Sleeping on the stomach with the head turned to the left will not decrease reflux incidence. Sleeping flat without a pillow under the head does not enhance clearance.
3. Which of the following diets is most commonly associated with colon cancer?
- A. Low-fiber, high fat
- B. Low-fat, high-fiber
- C. Low-protein, high-carbohydrate
- D. Low carbohydrate, high protein
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A low-fiber, high-fat diet is most commonly associated with an increased risk of colon cancer.
4. In a client with Crohn’s disease, which of the following symptoms should not be a direct result from antibiotic therapy?
- A. Decrease in bleeding
- B. Decrease in temperature
- C. Decrease in body weight
- D. Decrease in the number of stools
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Decrease in body weight is not a direct result of antibiotic therapy but may occur due to the underlying disease process.
5. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?
- A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
- B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
- C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
- D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBCs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of upper gastrointestinal bleeding that occurred approximately 2 hours earlier. It results from the breakdown of blood in the stomach due to digestive enzymes, giving it a coffee-ground appearance. Choice A is incorrect because coffee-ground emesis indicates older, partially digested blood, not fresh active bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as gastric lavage is not indicated for coffee-ground emesis. Choice D is incorrect because a transfusion of packed RBCs is not the immediate management for this presentation.
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