a clinician is conducting an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function which assessment finding would suggest a pos
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

2. An imbalance of which of the following hormones could lead to increased calcium levels in the blood?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Parathyroid hormone (Choice A). Parathyroid hormone plays a key role in regulating calcium levels in the blood. When there is an imbalance in parathyroid hormone secretion, it can lead to increased calcium levels in the blood. Antidiuretic hormone (Choice B) is involved in regulating water balance, not calcium levels. Calcitonin (Choice C) helps lower blood calcium levels and is unlikely to cause an increase. Melatonin (Choice D) regulates sleep-wake cycles and does not have a direct effect on calcium levels in the blood.

3. What are direct effects of antibodies? (Select ONE that does not apply):

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The direct effects of antibodies include neutralization, agglutination, and precipitation. Antibodies neutralize pathogens by binding to them and preventing their harmful effects. Agglutination involves the clumping together of pathogens, making it easier for phagocytes to engulf them. Precipitation refers to the process where antibodies bind to soluble antigens, forming large complexes that are easily removed from the body. Phagocytosis, on the other hand, is an indirect effect of antibodies where phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens opsonized by antibodies, not a direct effect.

4. A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.

5. During admission, 82-year-old Mr. Robeson is brought to the medical-surgical unit for diagnostic confirmation and management of probable delirium. Which statement by the client’s daughter best supports the diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sudden onset of behavioral changes is a typical symptom of delirium. Delirium is characterized by an acute and fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition. Choice A is incorrect because delirium is not a normal part of aging. Choice C describes memory issues, which can be seen in delirium but are less specific than sudden behavioral changes. Choice D, while it mentions the patient's independence, does not directly support the diagnosis of delirium.

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