a clinician is conducting an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function which assessment finding would suggest a pos
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

2. A student is feeling inside her backpack to find her mobile phone. There are a number of other items in the bag other than the phone. The nurse knows that which term best describes one's ability to sense the shape and size of an object in the absence of visualization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stereognosis is the correct answer. It refers to the ability to recognize objects by touch, specifically determining their shape and size without relying on visual cues. Graphesthesia, on the other hand, is the ability to recognize symbols or numbers traced on the skin. Proprioception involves the awareness of body position and movement. Kinesthesia relates to the perception of body movement.

3. A young man has received a diagnosis of androgen deficiency and has been prescribed testosterone. At clinic follow-up appointments, the nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient receiving testosterone therapy for androgen deficiency, monitoring weight and blood pressure is crucial. Testosterone therapy can lead to weight gain and hypertension, making regular assessments of these parameters important to detect and manage any adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority assessments for a patient on testosterone therapy. Bladder ultrasound and urine testing for glucose and ketones, hearing assessment and abdominal girth measurement, and deep tendon reflexes and random blood glucose testing are not directly related to the common side effects or monitoring requirements of testosterone therapy.

4. A patient is starting on alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse provide to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take alendronate with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes. This is essential to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime can increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect as taking alendronate with milk can reduce its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance its effectiveness.

5. Identify which conditions are due to excessive immune response.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allergies and rheumatoid arthritis. Allergies are caused by an excessive immune response to harmless substances, while rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks the body's tissues, leading to inflammation and joint damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nails, Type II diabetes is a metabolic disorder not primarily related to immune response, smallpox is a viral infection, chronic renal failure is a kidney condition, and macular degeneration is an eye disorder, none of which are directly linked to excessive immune response.

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