a clinician is conducting an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function which assessment finding would suggest a pos
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Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. During an assessment of a male client suspected of having a disorder of motor function, which finding would suggest a possible upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

2. Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with thrombocytopenia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decreased platelet cell count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, a decreased white blood cell count, is not typically associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice C, an increased red blood cell count, is not a characteristic finding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D, an increased platelet cell count, is the opposite of what is observed in thrombocytopenia.

3. A nurse is teaching a class about immune deficiencies, and a person from the audience asks which cells are affected by severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome, and the nurse answers:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: B and T cell deficits. Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) syndrome affects both B and T cells, leading to a severe impairment in the immune system's ability to fight infections. Choice A (B cell deficits) is incorrect because SCID affects not only B cells but also T cells. Choice B (T cell deficits) is incorrect as SCID is characterized by deficits in both B and T cells. Choice C (Complement deficits) is incorrect as SCID primarily involves B and T cell deficiencies rather than complement deficiencies.

4. A 34-year-old woman has presented to the clinic for the first time, and the nurse learns that she has been taking Depo Provera for the past 13 years. This aspect of the woman's medical history should prompt what assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is bone density testing (Choice C). Long-term use of Depo Provera, a hormonal contraceptive, is associated with decreased bone mineral density. Assessing bone density is crucial to monitor for potential osteoporosis. Cardiac stress testing (Choice A) is not indicated based on the medication history provided. Renal ultrasound (Choice B) and evaluation of triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not directly related to the use of Depo Provera.

5. A client with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a pulmonary exacerbation in cystic fibrosis, the priority intervention is to initiate airway clearance techniques. These techniques help clear mucus from the airways, improving ventilation and reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Administering a high-calorie, high-protein diet is beneficial for overall nutrition but is not the priority during an exacerbation. Encouraging an active lifestyle is important for long-term health but does not address the immediate need for managing exacerbations. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is important, but initiating airway clearance techniques takes precedence in the management of pulmonary exacerbations in cystic fibrosis.

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