Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?

• A. Use an electric razor instead of a straight razor.
• B. Apply pressure to any bleeding sites for at least 5 minutes.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary.
• D. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.

2. A client is receiving rituximab and asks how it works. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. It causes rapid lysis of the cancer cell membranes.
• B. It destroys the enzymes needed to create cancer cells.
• C. It prevents the start of cell division in the cancer cells.
• D. It sensitizes certain cancer cells to chemotherapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a protein found on the surface of certain B-cells, including some cancerous B-cells, such as in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Rituximab works by binding to the CD20 protein, which leads to the destruction of the cancerous B-cells through various mechanisms, including preventing the initiation of cell division. By blocking the division process, rituximab helps slow the growth and proliferation of cancer cells, allowing the immune system and additional treatments to clear them more effectively.

3. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care?

• A. There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma.
• B. Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status.
• C. The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia.
• D. The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count, also known as leukocytosis, is most commonly a response to infection. When the body detects an infection, the immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the invading pathogens. The accompanying symptoms of fever and malaise are typical signs of infection, supporting the likelihood that this patient’s health status is related to an infectious process rather than a more serious hematologic condition like lymphoma or leukemia.

4. Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of conization with a client who has microinvasive cervical cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client, indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. Infection
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Cervical stenosis
• D. Ovarian perforation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Ovarian perforation.' Ovarian perforation is not a complication associated with conization; therefore, if the client identifies this as a potential complication, it indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Infection, hemorrhage, and cervical stenosis are potential complications of conization, so identifying them would not necessarily indicate a need for further teaching.

5. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing severe nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy.
• B. Offer small, frequent meals that are bland and easy to digest.
• C. Encourage the client to rest after meals to reduce nausea.
• D. Instruct the client to use relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics 30 minutes before chemotherapy. Administering antiemetics before chemotherapy is crucial to prevent nausea rather than treating it after it occurs. This proactive approach helps in minimizing the side effects. Choice B, offering small, frequent meals, can be beneficial but is not the first intervention for severe nausea and vomiting. Choice C, encouraging rest after meals, may help but is not the priority when the client is experiencing severe symptoms. Choice D, instructing the client to use relaxation techniques, is not the first-line intervention for severe nausea and vomiting in a client receiving chemotherapy.

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