Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?

• A. Use an electric razor instead of a straight razor.
• B. Apply pressure to any bleeding sites for at least 5 minutes.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary.
• D. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.

2. A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?

• A. Smoking is the reason you are here.
• B. The doctor left orders for you not to smoke.
• C. You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?
• D. Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the patient's anxiety and encourages reflection on his behavior. This approach can help the patient explore his feelings and thoughts about smoking in relation to his surgery, promoting self-awareness and potentially opening the door for a constructive discussion. Choices A and B are more directive and may not address the underlying anxiety and need for reflection. Choice D is also somewhat permissive about smoking before surgery, which may not be in the patient's best interest.

3. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider?

• A. The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache.
• B. The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence.
• C. The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F).
• D. The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) have a dysfunctional bone marrow that leads to ineffective blood cell production, including white blood cells, which are crucial for fighting infections. As a result, they are at high risk for infections. Even a slight elevation in temperature, such as 37.5°C (99.5°F), could be an early sign of infection in an immunocompromised patient. Early detection and treatment of infections are critical in MDS patients, as infections can quickly become severe or life-threatening due to their compromised immune system.

4. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem?

• A. Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held?
• B. When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind?
• C. Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this?
• D. Would you say that you've had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Asking about exposure to toxic chemicals in previous jobs directly addresses the potential etiology of this patient's health problem. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the etiology of secondary MDS. Recurrent infections (Choice B) are not a known cause of MDS. Family history (Choice C) is more pertinent to primary MDS, which has a genetic component, while sun exposure (Choice D) is not associated with the etiology of MDS.

5. When preparing for the patient's subsequent care after completing the full course of treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia without a significant response, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Arrange a meeting between the patient's family and the hospital chaplain.
• B. Assess the factors underlying the patient's failure to adhere to the treatment regimen.
• C. Encourage the patient to vigorously pursue complementary and alternative medicine (CAM).
• D. Identify the patient's specific wishes around end-of-life care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where a patient does not respond appreciably to therapy, it is crucial to identify and respect the patient's choices regarding treatment, including preferences for end-of-life care. Option A is incorrect because it focuses on spiritual support rather than the patient's care preferences. Option B is incorrect as it assumes non-adherence to treatment without evidence. Option C is incorrect as it suggests an alternative treatment approach without considering the patient's wishes for end-of-life care.

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