ATI RN
Oncology Test Bank
1. A nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action is the highest priority to reduce the risk of bleeding?
- A. Use an electric razor instead of a straight razor.
- B. Apply pressure to any bleeding sites for at least 5 minutes.
- C. Avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary.
- D. Monitor for signs of internal bleeding.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority action to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with thrombocytopenia is to avoid invasive procedures unless absolutely necessary. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which impairs the blood's ability to clot properly. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse minimizes the potential for bleeding episodes that could be challenging to control due to the low platelet count. Using an electric razor instead of a straight razor (Choice A) is a good practice to prevent cuts, but it is not as critical as avoiding invasive procedures in this scenario. Applying pressure to bleeding sites (Choice B) and monitoring for signs of internal bleeding (Choice D) are important interventions but are secondary to the priority of preventing bleeding by avoiding invasive procedures.
2. A nurse enters the room of a patient with bladder cancer. The patient asks the nurse about the actions of chemotherapeutic drugs. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?
- A. Chemotherapeutic drugs will kill all of your cancer cells
- B. Chemotherapeutic medications are attracted mostly to slowly dividing cells
- C. Chemotherapy can cure cancer
- D. Chemotherapy is specifically destroying cancer cells
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chemotherapy drugs are designed to target and destroy rapidly dividing cells, which include cancer cells. Cancer cells often divide more quickly than normal cells, and chemotherapeutic agents exploit this characteristic to inhibit their growth and promote cell death. While chemotherapy can also affect other rapidly dividing normal cells (such as those in the bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and hair follicles), the primary goal is to target cancerous cells.
3. The nurse is instructing a client to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). What information should the nurse provide about the procedure?
- A. To examine the testicles while lying down
- B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
- C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
- D. That testicular self-examinations should be done at least every 6 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The best time to perform a testicular self-examination is after a warm shower when the scrotal skin is relaxed. This makes it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because the examination should ideally be done while standing. Choice C is incorrect as the client should use both hands to roll each testicle between the thumb and fingers to feel for any lumps or changes in size. Choice D is incorrect because testicular self-examinations are recommended to be done monthly, not every 6 months, to monitor changes in the testicles.
4. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?
- A. Increased calcium level
- B. Increased white blood cells
- C. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
- D. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In multiple myeloma, the nurse would expect to note an increased calcium level in the laboratory results. This elevation is due to bone destruction caused by the disease, releasing calcium into the bloodstream. Increased white blood cells (Choice B) are not typically associated with multiple myeloma. Additionally, a decreased blood urea nitrogen level (Choice C) is not a common finding in this disorder. Multiple myeloma is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to an increased number of plasma cells, not a decreased number (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is an increased calcium level.
5. Nurse Mandy is teaching a client about the side effects of radiation therapy. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Radiation therapy is painless.
- B. You may experience hair loss.
- C. Fatigue is a common side effect.
- D. You may experience nausea and vomiting.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fatigue is one of the most frequent and profound side effects of radiation therapy. It often occurs because radiation can damage both cancerous and healthy cells, and the body requires energy to repair the damage caused by the treatment. Fatigue from radiation can be cumulative, meaning it may worsen as treatments progress, and can significantly affect the client’s daily activities, requiring the nurse to educate the client on energy conservation techniques.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access