Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mindfulness meditation.' Side effects of antipsychotic medications include tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Mindfulness meditation is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choices A, B, and D are all potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication. Hyperglycemia can occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, particularly the second-generation ones.

2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

3. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

• A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
• B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
• C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
• D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

4. A client has been diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Preoccupation with having a serious illness
• B. Fear of social situations
• C. Dramatic expressions of emotion
• D. Preoccupation with a perceived physical defect

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoccupation with having a serious illness. Illness anxiety disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness, despite medical reassurance. This preoccupation leads individuals to misinterpret normal bodily sensations as signs of a severe illness, causing distress and impairment in daily functioning. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fear of social situations, dramatic expressions of emotion, and preoccupation with a perceived physical defect are not typical behaviors associated with illness anxiety disorder.

5. A client has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is having nightmares about the event. The client reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the event during the day.
• B. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol.
• C. Administer a prescribed sedative at bedtime.
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment with the client's therapist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take is to encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event during the day. This approach can assist the client in processing the trauma in a controlled environment, potentially reducing the frequency and intensity of nightmares. It allows for emotional expression and may promote better sleep by addressing the underlying psychological distress associated with PTSD. Encouraging the client to talk about the event during the day promotes therapeutic processing of the trauma and emotional expression, which can lead to improved coping mechanisms and potentially decrease the distressing symptoms like nightmares. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine and alcohol may be beneficial, but addressing the emotional aspects first is crucial. Administering a sedative should not be the first approach, as it does not address the root cause of the nightmares. Scheduling a follow-up appointment with the therapist is important but should follow addressing the immediate distressing symptoms and promoting coping strategies.

Similar Questions