Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following characteristics is not a feature of borderline personality disorder?

• A. Intense fear of abandonment
• B. Unstable relationships
• C. Impulsivity
• D. Grandiosity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by an intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Grandiosity, which involves an inflated sense of self-importance, is typically associated with narcissistic personality disorder rather than borderline personality disorder.

2. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.

3. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
• B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
• C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
• D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

4. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant commonly used in the treatment of ADHD. It helps improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol and clozapine are antipsychotic medications typically used for other conditions such as schizophrenia, while fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is Methylphenidate (Choice C).

5. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.

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