Nursing Elites

1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Interrupt the ritual to help the patient gain control.
• B. Allow the ritual but set limits on the duration.
• C. Ignore the behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• D. Encourage the patient to stop the ritual and discuss their feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD engaging in ritualistic behaviors like handwashing, the nurse's best initial response is to allow the ritual but set limits on the duration. This approach helps in managing the behavior while gradually working towards reducing its frequency. Interrupting the ritual abruptly may cause distress to the patient, ignoring the behavior may reinforce it, and encouraging the patient to stop the ritual without setting limits may not be as effective in the initial stage of intervention.

2. A client has been prescribed diazepam (Valium) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) as it can potentiate the sedative effects and increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset, but avoiding alcohol is crucial to ensure safe and effective use of diazepam. Choice B is partially correct, as taking the medication with food can indeed help with stomach upset, but it is not as crucial as avoiding alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose is dangerous and should never be done without healthcare provider approval.

3. A client has been diagnosed with illness anxiety disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Preoccupation with having a serious illness
• B. Fear of social situations
• C. Dramatic expressions of emotion
• D. Preoccupation with a perceived physical defect

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoccupation with having a serious illness. Illness anxiety disorder, formerly known as hypochondriasis, is characterized by a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness, despite medical reassurance. This preoccupation leads individuals to misinterpret normal bodily sensations as signs of a severe illness, causing distress and impairment in daily functioning. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fear of social situations, dramatic expressions of emotion, and preoccupation with a perceived physical defect are not typical behaviors associated with illness anxiety disorder.

4. A client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings. Which is the most appropriate nursing response?

• A. Genetics have no influence on your temperament.
• B. How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.
• C. Maintaining good physical health always keeps stress levels low.
• D. Stress can be avoided by using appropriate coping mechanisms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.' This response is appropriate because past experiences can shape an individual's current response to stress. It acknowledges the impact of learned patterns and coping mechanisms on one's current adaptation to stressors. Choice A is incorrect because genetics can play a role in temperament to some extent. Choice C is incorrect because while physical health can contribute to stress management, it is not the sole determinant of stress levels. Choice D is incorrect as stress is not always avoidable, but coping mechanisms can help manage and reduce its impact.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

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