Nursing Elites

1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Interrupt the ritual to help the patient gain control.
• B. Allow the ritual but set limits on the duration.
• C. Ignore the behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• D. Encourage the patient to stop the ritual and discuss their feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD engaging in ritualistic behaviors like handwashing, the nurse's best initial response is to allow the ritual but set limits on the duration. This approach helps in managing the behavior while gradually working towards reducing its frequency. Interrupting the ritual abruptly may cause distress to the patient, ignoring the behavior may reinforce it, and encouraging the patient to stop the ritual without setting limits may not be as effective in the initial stage of intervention.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
• C. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in regular physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may exhibit increased energy levels, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep, which can lead to risky behaviors and accidents. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli helps to reduce the risk of overstimulation and impulsive actions, thereby promoting the client's safety. This intervention aims to create a calm and controlled setting that can prevent potential harm to the client during this phase of the disorder.

3. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
• B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
• C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
• D. The client shows no change in behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).

4. A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit, he states to a nurse: 'Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I'll look into pursuing an art degree.' How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Harm/loss
• C. Threatening
• D. Challenging

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement indicates that he views the job loss as an opportunity for growth and a new direction in life rather than a threat or harm/loss. He sees it as a challenge and is considering it positively, demonstrating resilience and adaptability in the face of adversity. Choice A, 'Irrelevant,' is incorrect as the client's response shows relevance and a positive outlook. Choice B, 'Harm/loss,' is incorrect as the client does not express a sense of harm or loss but rather opportunity. Choice C, 'Threatening,' is incorrect as the client's response does not convey fear or threat but rather a positive reframe of the situation.

5. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.

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