Nursing Elites

1. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is performing a ritualistic handwashing routine. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Interrupt the ritual to help the patient gain control.
• B. Allow the ritual but set limits on the duration.
• C. Ignore the behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• D. Encourage the patient to stop the ritual and discuss their feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD engaging in ritualistic behaviors like handwashing, the nurse's best initial response is to allow the ritual but set limits on the duration. This approach helps in managing the behavior while gradually working towards reducing its frequency. Interrupting the ritual abruptly may cause distress to the patient, ignoring the behavior may reinforce it, and encouraging the patient to stop the ritual without setting limits may not be as effective in the initial stage of intervention.

2. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Discourage the client from washing her hands
• D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

4. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the education provided about the antidepressant medication sertraline (Zoloft)?

• A. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.
• D. I should avoid taking this medication with other medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. It is crucial for clients to understand that sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to show its full effects. Patients should be informed about this delay in onset of action to set realistic expectations and adhere to the treatment plan. This education helps prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because sertraline (Zoloft) should be taken with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Choice D is inaccurate as there are specific medications that should be avoided with sertraline, but a general statement to avoid all other medications is overly broad and not necessary.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• C. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
• D. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may engage in impulsive behaviors that can put them at risk of harm. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli can help reduce the risk of injury by minimizing triggers for impulsive actions. This intervention promotes a safe and controlled setting for the client, which is crucial in managing the symptoms of mania. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice B) may increase stimuli and potentially exacerbate manic symptoms. Monitoring for signs of exhaustion (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the safety concerns related to impulsive behaviors during mania. Encouraging the client to rest and sleep as needed (Choice D) may be challenging during the manic phase when individuals typically experience decreased need for sleep.

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