Nursing Elites

1. A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with vitamin B12 deficiency anemia (pernicious anemia). How should the nurse respond when the patient asks what causes pernicious anemia? A decrease in ______ is the most likely cause.

• A. Ferritin
• B. Gastric enzymes
• C. Intrinsic factor
• D. Erythropoietin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a decrease in intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the intestines. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed properly, leading to anemia. Ferritin is a protein that stores iron in the body and is not directly related to pernicious anemia. Gastric enzymes play a role in digestion but are not the primary cause of pernicious anemia. Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production and is not linked to pernicious anemia.

2. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

• A. Sputum culture
• B. Bronchoscopy
• C. Chest x-ray
• D. CT scan of the chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

3. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms?

• A. HRT may increase the risk of cardiovascular events and breast cancer.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are aware of the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it has been linked to an increased risk of this condition. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT may have positive effects on mood and energy levels for some individuals, the focus here is on the long-term risks that need to be addressed. Choice D is incorrect as HRT is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, but the primary focus of the question is on cardiovascular events and breast cancer.

4. Although stress exposure initiates integrated responses by multiple systems, which system first activates the most important changes?

• A. Pulmonary
• B. Gastrointestinal
• C. Neuroendocrine
• D. Cardiovascular

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the Neuroendocrine system. When the body is exposed to stress, the neuroendocrine system plays a crucial role in initiating the body's response. This system, particularly through the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, triggers a cascade of physiological responses to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while other systems like the cardiovascular and gastrointestinal systems also respond to stress, the neuroendocrine system is primarily responsible for the initial and significant changes in the body's stress response.

5. In which patient would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?

• A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
• B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
• C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
• D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. New onset headaches in older adults, especially if worse at night, may indicate a serious condition like a brain tumor. Choice B describes symptoms commonly seen in migraines. Choice C describes tension-type headaches. Choice D describes symptoms of a menstrual migraine which is not typically associated with a serious underlying disorder.

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