a client with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath the nurse should suspect which condition a client with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath the nurse should suspect which condition
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A client with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. The nurse should suspect which condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). COPD is often associated with a chronic cough and shortness of breath, especially in individuals with a history of smoking. Pulmonary fibrosis (choice A) typically presents with progressive dyspnea and dry cough. Lung cancer (choice C) may present with a chronic cough, shortness of breath, and other symptoms like weight loss and hemoptysis. Pulmonary edema (choice D) presents with symptoms such as acute shortness of breath, orthopnea, and pink, frothy sputum.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI) and is prescribed ciprofloxacin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for and report which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat UTIs, can cause photosensitivity as an adverse effect. This reaction makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, potentially leading to severe sunburns or skin damage. It is crucial for the client to be aware of this adverse effect to take precautions and report any signs of photosensitivity promptly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, urinary frequency, and insomnia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use. While urinary frequency might be a symptom of UTI, it is not an adverse effect of the medication itself.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

5. A patient is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, thereby preventing further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to serious consequences. While ambulation is important, in DVT, early ambulation without elevation can potentially dislodge the clot. Warm compresses can increase blood flow to the area and worsen the condition by promoting clot dislodgement.

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