Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of prostate cancer is in the clinic and reports new onset of severe low back pain. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Assess the client’s gait and balance.
• B. Ask the client about any changes in urinary symptoms.
• C. Document the report thoroughly.
• D. Inquire about the client’s recent activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse is to assess the client’s gait and balance. Severe low back pain in a client with a history of prostate cancer may indicate spinal cord compression, a serious complication. Assessing gait and balance can help determine if there is any spinal cord involvement, which requires immediate medical attention. Asking about changes in urinary symptoms (choice B) is important to assess for possible urinary obstruction, but assessing gait and balance takes precedence due to the risk of spinal cord compression. Documenting the report thoroughly (choice C) is essential but not the most immediate action needed. Inquiring about recent activities (choice D) is not as critical as assessing for spinal cord involvement.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae on her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
• B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
• C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
• D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's signs of ecchymoses and petechiae are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, which is a common complication of leukemia. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to abnormal bleeding. Checking the patient's most recent platelet level is crucial to assess the severity of thrombocytopenia and guide further interventions. Initiating measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE) (Choice A) is not directly related to the patient's current signs. Placing the patient on protective isolation (Choice C) is not necessary for ecchymoses and petechiae. Ambulating the patient (Choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the underlying cause of abnormal bleeding.

3. When planning care for a 77-year-old male admitted with suspected acute myeloid leukemia (AML), what epidemiologic fact should the nurse be aware of?

• A. Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes.
• B. Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%.
• C. Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%.
• D. Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patient's pre-illness level of health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of AML, the 5-year survival rate significantly decreases with age. The 5-year survival rate for patients over 75 years old is less than 2% compared to 43% for those 50 years or younger, and 19% for those between 50 and 64 years. Choice A is incorrect as early diagnosis does not necessarily guarantee good outcomes in AML. Choice B is inaccurate as the 5-year survival rate is not approximately 50% for older adults with AML. Choice D is incorrect as survival rates for AML patients are influenced by various factors beyond just the pre-illness level of health.

4. A client is receiving rituximab. What assessment by the nurse takes priority?

• A. Blood pressure.
• B. Temperature.
• C. Oral mucous membranes.
• D. Pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving rituximab, the nurse's priority assessment should be monitoring the blood pressure. Rituximab can lead to infusion-related reactions, such as hypotension. Therefore, assessing the client's blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage any potential adverse reactions promptly. While monitoring temperature, oral mucous membranes, and pain are essential aspects of care, they are not the priority when a client is receiving rituximab.

5. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:

• A. To examine the testicles while lying down
• B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
• C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
• D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best time to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE) is after a warm shower or bath. The heat from the water relaxes the scrotal skin, making it easier to feel any abnormalities, lumps, or changes in the testicles. This relaxation allows for a more thorough and accurate examination.

Similar Questions