what typically causes contact dermatitis
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3

1. What typically causes contact dermatitis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact dermatitis is typically caused by contact with a skin allergen that triggers an allergic reaction. Choice A, fungal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is not caused by fungi. Choice B, long-term disorder from gout, is also incorrect as gout is not typically associated with contact dermatitis. Choice D, Staphylococcal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is primarily an allergic reaction rather than a bacterial infection.

2. A male patient is being treated with testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is important to minimize the risk of transfer to others. Applying the gel to the lower abdomen, thighs, face, or neck can increase the risk of transfer to others, especially women and children who should avoid contact with testosterone gel. Applying it to the scalp and back is not recommended as these areas are not suitable for absorption of the medication.

3. What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the decreased glomerular filtration rate in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Immune complex deposition, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys. This inflammation leads to the deposition of immune complexes, increased capillary permeability, and cellular proliferation, which collectively contribute to a decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice A is incorrect as decreased renal-induced constriction of the renal arteries would not directly result in decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice C is incorrect as necrosis of nephrons due to increased kidney interstitial hydrostatic pressure would affect kidney function differently. Choice D is incorrect as scar tissue formation in the proximal convoluted tubule due to toxin-induced collagen synthesis is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis.

4. A hemoglobin electrophoresis is done to evaluate for sickle cell disease. The report reveals the person has HbAS, which means the person:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the person is a sickle cell carrier. In HbAS, 'Hb' stands for hemoglobin, 'A' indicates normal hemoglobin, and 'S' indicates the sickle cell trait. Individuals with HbAS are carriers of the sickle cell trait but do not have sickle cell disease. Choice A is incorrect because having the sickle cell trait means carrying the gene for sickle cell disease. Choice C is incorrect as sickle cell anemia is a different condition where individuals have two copies of the abnormal hemoglobin gene, resulting in the disease. Choice D is incorrect because thalassemia is a separate genetic disorder affecting the production of hemoglobin, not related to the sickle cell trait.

5. A female patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What should the nurse include in the patient education?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) can cause breakthrough bleeding or spotting, which is a common side effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased risk of diabetes, and increased risk of breast cancer are not commonly associated side effects of medroxyprogesterone acetate. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the patient about the potential for breakthrough bleeding or spotting.

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