Nursing Elites

1. What typically causes contact dermatitis?

• A. Fungal infection
• B. Long-term disorder from gout
• C. Contact with a skin allergen
• D. Staphylococcal infection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact dermatitis is typically caused by contact with a skin allergen that triggers an allergic reaction. Choice A, fungal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is not caused by fungi. Choice B, long-term disorder from gout, is also incorrect as gout is not typically associated with contact dermatitis. Choice D, Staphylococcal infection, is incorrect as contact dermatitis is primarily an allergic reaction rather than a bacterial infection.

2. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?

• A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
• B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
• C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
• D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.

3. A 30-year-old female has suffered a third-degree burn to her hand after spilling hot oil in a kitchen accident. Which teaching point by a member of her care team is most appropriate?

• A. Your hand will likely heal without the need for a skin graft.
• B. You might experience a loss of sensation in your hand after it heals.
• C. Be sure to keep your hand elevated to reduce swelling.
• D. We will need to monitor you for infection as your hand heals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In third-degree burns, infection is a major concern due to the extensive damage to the skin. Monitoring for infection is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because third-degree burns often require skin grafts due to the severity of the injury. Choice B is incorrect as loss of sensation is more common in nerve damage and not necessarily in burns. Choice C is incorrect because while elevation can help with swelling in minor burns, it is not the most critical concern in third-degree burns.

4. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?

• A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
• B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
• C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
• D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.

5. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?

• A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
• B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
• C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
• D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.

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