a client taking nitroglycerin nitrostat complains of a headache which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.

2. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods." Prednisone is associated with potassium depletion, making it important for clients to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent potential imbalances. Foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach are good sources of potassium. Choice B, "Avoid consuming grapefruit juice," is not directly related to Prednisone use. Choice C, "Take this medication with food," is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Prednisone. Choice D, "Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods," is not directly related to Prednisone's side effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.

4. Which medication is a beta blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

5. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can cause sedation, so the client should be advised to avoid activities that require alertness. Diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated adverse effects of Dextromethorphan.

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