ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?
- A. A headache indicates a serious allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
- B. The client will not have a headache if the nitroglycerin is taken with a high-fat meal.
- C. Nitroglycerin does not cause a headache.
- D. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is a headache.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.
2. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Captopril
- C. Ranolazine
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. The nurse should instruct the client to increase dietary intake of which of the following substances?
- A. Iron
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are often prescribed epoetin alfa to treat anemia. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing the body's demand for iron to support this process. Therefore, clients taking epoetin alfa should be advised to increase their dietary intake of iron-rich foods to meet the increased demand and prevent iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while protein is essential for overall health, potassium and sodium intake may need to be restricted in clients with chronic kidney disease to manage electrolyte balance and blood pressure.
4. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Nausea
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.
5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?
- A. Visual disturbances
- B. Dry cough
- C. Confusion
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, can be an early sign of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial to detect and prevent potential adverse effects of digoxin. Dry cough, confusion, and urinary retention are not commonly associated adverse effects of digoxin and are not typically monitored in relation to this medication.
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