Nursing Elites

1. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) complains of a headache. Which conclusion is most appropriate by the nurse?

• A. A headache indicates a serious allergic reaction to nitroglycerin.
• B. The client will not have a headache if the nitroglycerin is taken with a high-fat meal.
• C. Nitroglycerin does not cause a headache.
• D. The most common side effect of nitroglycerin is a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause headaches as a common side effect due to its vasodilatory properties. It dilates blood vessels, which can lead to headaches. While a headache can indicate other serious conditions, the most common association with nitroglycerin use is a headache. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this side effect and provide appropriate education and support to the client.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.
• C. Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

3. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
• B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
• C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
• D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.

4. A client has ordered a thrombolytic medication for the treatment of CVA. Which type of stroke should not be treated with a thrombolytic?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thrombotic stroke
• C. Both types can be treated with a thrombolytic
• D. Neither type can be treated with a thrombolytic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic medications are used to dissolve blood clots. In the case of a hemorrhagic stroke, where there is bleeding in the brain, the use of thrombolytics can worsen the condition by increasing bleeding. Therefore, hemorrhagic strokes should not be treated with thrombolytic medications.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is prescribed Metformin. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin A1c
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, especially in individuals with impaired renal function. Monitoring the client's serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess kidney function because Metformin is eliminated by the kidneys, and impaired renal function can increase the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring blood glucose levels is essential for assessing the effectiveness of Metformin in managing diabetes but is not directly related to potential adverse effects of Metformin. Creatine kinase is not typically monitored in relation to Metformin therapy. Hemoglobin A1c is used to assess long-term glucose control in diabetes but is not specific for monitoring Metformin adverse effects.

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