ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client states, 'I am the only one who can hear voices.' Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. Tell me more about these voices.
- B. Let's explore these voices together.
- C. How long have you been hearing these voices?
- D. Have you told anyone else about these voices?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to encourage the client to talk about their experiences with hearing voices. By asking the client to share more details about the voices, the nurse can gain insight into the nature of the auditory hallucinations and better understand the client's condition. This open-ended question allows the client to express themselves freely and helps build rapport and trust between the client and the nurse. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's statement or encourage further elaboration, making them less effective responses in this context.
2. A patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly associated with sexual dysfunction as a side effect. This adverse effect includes decreased libido, delayed orgasm, and erectile dysfunction. Educating patients about this potential side effect is crucial to manage expectations and consider appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as SSRIs are not typically associated with hypertension, diarrhea, or weight gain as common side effects.
3. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:
- A. Major depression
- B. Normal grieving
- C. Adjustment disorder
- D. Posttraumatic stress disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.
4. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
5. During pregnancy, a woman is in a relationship with a male who routinely abuses her. Her unborn child may engage in high-risk behavior as a teen as a result of:
- A. Maternal stress
- B. Parental nurturing
- C. Appropriate stress responses in the brain
- D. Memories of the abuse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Maternal stress during pregnancy can have long-term effects on the child's behavior and stress responses. Research shows that exposure to high levels of stress hormones in the womb can influence the developing fetal brain and the child's future behavior, potentially leading to high-risk behaviors during adolescence.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access