ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. When assessing a client experiencing severe anxiety, which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Rapid heart rate
- C. Sweating
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, a rapid heart rate is a common physiological response. This increased heart rate is due to the body's fight-or-flight response, where adrenaline is released, causing the heart to beat faster. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial in assessing and managing their anxiety. Restlessness (choice A) can also be present in anxiety but is more of a behavioral manifestation rather than a physiological symptom. Sweating (choice C) can occur in anxiety, but it is not as specific or consistent as a rapid heart rate. Dry mouth (choice D) is associated with anxiety but is not as immediate or directly linked to the body's physiological response to stress as a rapid heart rate.
2. When under stress, a client routinely uses an excessive amount of alcohol. Finding her drunk, her husband yells at her about the chronic alcohol abuse. Which reaction should the nurse recognize as the use of the defense mechanism of denial?
- A. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet
- B. Yelling at their son for slouching in his chair
- C. Burning dinner on purpose
- D. Saying to the spouse, 'I don't drink too much!'
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should recognize the client's statement 'I don't drink too much!' as the use of the defense mechanism of denial. This response indicates the client's refusal to acknowledge the reality of excessive alcohol consumption, which is a key characteristic of denial. By denying the problem, the client avoids facing the negative consequences and feelings associated with their alcohol abuse. Choices A, B, and C do not exhibit denial but rather represent different defense mechanisms. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet might indicate the defense mechanism of concealment, yelling at their son for slouching in his chair could reflect displacement, and burning dinner on purpose might suggest passive-aggressive behavior.
3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimuli.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of exhaustion.
- C. Encourage the client to rest and sleep as needed.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in regular physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may exhibit increased energy levels, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep, which can lead to risky behaviors and accidents. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli helps to reduce the risk of overstimulation and impulsive actions, thereby promoting the client's safety. This intervention aims to create a calm and controlled setting that can prevent potential harm to the client during this phase of the disorder.
4. Which statement about the concept of psychoses is most accurate?
- A. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive.
- B. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress.
- C. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems.
- D. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most accurate statement about psychoses is that individuals experiencing it often exhibit limited distress because they are not fully aware of their altered perception of reality. They may not recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive or acknowledge the presence of psychological issues. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not be aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not have insight into their psychological problems. Choice D is incorrect because individuals with psychoses often struggle to differentiate between reality and their altered perceptions.
5. Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?
- A. The DSM-5 includes information on cultural considerations.
- B. The DSM-5 is a tool for healthcare providers.
- C. The DSM-5 is not used for legal purposes.
- D. The DSM-5 includes information on the prevalence of mental disorders.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.
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