Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client experiencing severe anxiety, which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Restlessness
• B. Rapid heart rate
• C. Sweating
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, a rapid heart rate is a common physiological response. This increased heart rate is due to the body's fight-or-flight response, where adrenaline is released, causing the heart to beat faster. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial in assessing and managing their anxiety. Restlessness (choice A) can also be present in anxiety but is more of a behavioral manifestation rather than a physiological symptom. Sweating (choice C) can occur in anxiety, but it is not as specific or consistent as a rapid heart rate. Dry mouth (choice D) is associated with anxiety but is not as immediate or directly linked to the body's physiological response to stress as a rapid heart rate.

2. Which medication is typically prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Sertraline
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant often prescribed to manage symptoms of ADHD. It works by increasing the activity of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol, Sertraline, and Clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used in conditions like schizophrenia, Sertraline is an antidepressant primarily for mood disorders, and Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

3. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

4. After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, 'You are incompetent!' Which is the nurse's best response?

• A. Do you believe that I was the cause of your blood test being canceled?
• B. I see that you are upset, but I feel uncomfortable when you swear at me.
• C. Have you ever thought about ways to express anger appropriately?
• D. I'll give you some space. Let me know if you need anything.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate response for the nurse is option B. By acknowledging the client's feelings and setting a boundary regarding inappropriate behavior, the nurse addresses the situation with empathy. This response demonstrates understanding of the client's emotions while also maintaining a professional standard by expressing discomfort with swearing. Option A could come off as defensive and may escalate the situation. Option C may be perceived as condescending and not immediately address the client's behavior. Option D, although offering space, does not directly address the inappropriate behavior and misses an opportunity to set a professional boundary.

5. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

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