Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing?

• A. Pseudomembranous colitis
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Appendicitis
• D. Esophageal cancer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Appendicitis. The symptoms described - lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, diarrhea, and tenderness upon palpation - are classic signs of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammatory condition of the appendix that often presents with these symptoms and requires immediate medical attention. Choice A, Pseudomembranous colitis, typically presents with watery diarrhea and is associated with antibiotic use. Choice B, Peptic ulcer disease, commonly presents with epigastric pain related to meals and can be accompanied by nausea or vomiting, but it does not typically cause right lower quadrant pain. Choice D, Esophageal cancer, usually presents with symptoms related to swallowing difficulties, weight loss, and sometimes chest pain, but it is not associated with the symptoms described in the scenario.

2. A college student has a TB test prior to starting the semester. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radiograph is negative?

• A. Transmission
• B. Primary infection
• C. Latent tuberculosis
• D. Active tuberculosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the chest radiograph is negative despite a positive tuberculin skin test, the student will be diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. Latent tuberculosis means the student has the TB bacteria in their body but does not feel sick and cannot spread the disease. Choice A, 'Transmission,' is incorrect as it refers to the spread of TB from person to person. Choice B, 'Primary infection,' is incorrect because primary infection occurs when a person is first infected with the TB bacteria. Choice D, 'Active tuberculosis,' is incorrect as this refers to the active form of the disease where the person feels sick and can spread TB to others.

3. Which of the following birthmarks usually fade or regress as the child gets older?

• A. Hemangiomas
• B. Congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots)
• C. Macular stains
• D. Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Hemangiomas, congenital dermal melanocytosis (i.e., Mongolian spots), and macular stains. These three types of birthmarks are known to fade or regress as the child gets older. Hemangiomas are vascular birthmarks that often shrink and disappear over time. Congenital dermal melanocytosis, commonly known as Mongolian spots, usually fade by adolescence. Macular stains, also called salmon patches, tend to lighten and fade as a child grows. The other choices are incorrect because they do not typically fade or regress with age.

4. A patient is starting on medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Patients starting on medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis should be instructed to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated to the medication and not a specific concern with its use. Choice D is incorrect as patients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider, even if side effects occur.

5. A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

• A. B cell deficiency
• B. T cell deficiency
• C. Combined immunodeficiency
• D. Complement deficiency

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: T cell deficiency. The symptoms described in the case, including low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, involuntary rapid muscular contraction, and decreased calcium levels, are indicative of DiGeorge syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by T cell deficiency due to thymic hypoplasia. B cell deficiency (Choice A), combined immunodeficiency (Choice C), and complement deficiency (Choice D) do not align with the clinical presentation and laboratory findings provided in the case. Therefore, T cell deficiency is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

Similar Questions