Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is recovering from a lung biopsy. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Increased temperature
• B. Absent breath sounds
• C. Productive cough
• D. Incisional discomfort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Absent breath sounds may indicate a pneumothorax, a serious complication post lung biopsy. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress.

3. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

4. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?

• A. Attending a class on tracheostomy care
• B. Verbally explaining all steps in the procedure
• C. Performing the procedure independently
• D. Asking relevant questions about suctioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.

5. When assessing a client with a pneumothorax and a chest tube, which finding should the nurse notify the provider about?

• A. Movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side
• B. Bubbling of the water in the water seal chamber with exhalation
• C. Crepitus in the area above and surrounding the insertion site
• D. Eyelets not visible

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The movement of the trachea toward the unaffected side is concerning as it can indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate intervention. The trachea should be midline, so any deviation should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention.

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