a client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction mi at 1500 300 pm the facility has 24 hour catheterization laborator
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam

1. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

2. A patient is assessing a client who has just been admitted to the emergency department. The client is having difficulty breathing and is using accessory muscles. What action by the nurse is best?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client in a high Fowler's position is the best action in this situation as it helps to maximize lung expansion, improve breathing, and decrease the work of breathing. This position allows for better chest expansion, improving oxygenation and ventilation for the client in respiratory distress.

3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

4. A client presents with shortness of breath, pain in the lung area, and a recent history of starting birth control pills and smoking. Vital signs include a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 40/min, and blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg. Arterial blood gases reveal pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, PaO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 20 mEq/L, and SaO2 86%. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a high respiratory rate, low PaO2, and low SaO2, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via a face mask will help increase the oxygen supply to the client's lungs and tissues, addressing the hypoxemia. While mechanical ventilation may be necessary in severe cases, administering oxygen is the initial and most appropriate intervention to address the client's respiratory distress. Sedatives should not be given without ensuring adequate oxygenation. Assessing for pulmonary embolism is important but not the priority at this moment when the client is experiencing respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

5. A client is postoperative, and a nurse is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to prevent pulmonary complications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is vital in preventing pulmonary complications postoperatively. The incentive spirometer helps the client perform deep breathing exercises, promoting lung expansion, and preventing atelectasis. Range-of-motion exercises help prevent musculoskeletal complications, while placing suction equipment at the bedside is important but not directly related to preventing pulmonary complications. Administering an expectorant may help with clearing secretions but is not as effective in preventing postoperative pulmonary complications as using an incentive spirometer.

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