a client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction mi at 1500 300 pm the facility has 24 hour catheterization laborator
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam

1. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

2. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.

3. Prior to performing percussion, vibration, and postural drainage on an adolescent client with pneumonia, which of the following nursing actions should the nurse complete first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating percussion, vibration, and postural drainage, the nurse should first auscultate the lung fields to assess the baseline lung sounds and identify areas of congestion or abnormality. This initial assessment helps the nurse to tailor the percussion and drainage techniques effectively. Assessing pulse and respirations, sputum characteristics, and providing instructions to the client for exhalation are important steps in the procedure but should follow the initial auscultation to ensure a comprehensive and individualized care approach.

4. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who will start using fluticasone via MDI twice daily, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for clients using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone to inspect their mouths daily for signs of oral thrush, a common side effect. Checking the mouth can help identify lesions early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent worsening of the condition. Monitoring heart rate is not specifically required for this medication. Fluticasone is a maintenance medication used to manage COPD, not to relieve acute attacks. Skipping doses, especially in the morning, can lead to inadequate control of COPD symptoms.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.

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