Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

2. A client with asthma is assessed by a nurse and presents with bilateral wheezing, decreased pulse oxygen saturation, and suprasternal retraction on inhalation. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer prescribed albuterol (Ventolin) inhaler.
• B. Assess the client for tracheal deviation.
• C. Administer oxygen to maintain saturations greater than 94%.
• D. Perform peak expiratory flow measurements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suprasternal retraction during inhalation indicates the use of accessory muscles and difficulty in moving air due to airway narrowing, supported by bilateral wheezing and decreased pulse oxygen saturation. This client needs immediate intervention as their asthma is not responding to the medication. Administering oxygen to maintain saturations above 94% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. While administering a rescue inhaler could also be necessary, oxygen therapy takes priority in this situation.

3. During an acute asthma attack in a client with asthma, what medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Oral corticosteroids
• B. Short-acting beta agonist
• C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
• D. Long-acting beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Short-acting beta agonists, like albuterol, are the first-line medications as they rapidly relax bronchial muscles, providing immediate relief. Oral corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation over time, while leukotriene receptor antagonists and long-acting beta agonists are not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute attack.

4. A client is receiving discharge teaching after a total hip replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• B. I can sleep on my side as long as I use a pillow between my legs.
• C. I will avoid bending at the waist to pick things up.
• D. I can bend down to tie my shoes after 2 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a total hip replacement, clients should avoid bending at the waist past 90 degrees for at least 6 weeks to prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis. Bending down to tie shoes involves significant hip flexion and should be avoided during the initial postoperative period to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications.

5. A client who received benzocaine spray before a recent bronchoscopy presents with continuous cyanosis despite oxygen therapy. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Administer albuterol treatment.
• B. Notify Rapid Response Team.
• C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses.
• D. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis unresponsive to oxygen therapy suggests methemoglobinemia, an adverse effect of benzocaine spray. Methemoglobinemia can lead to death if not managed promptly. The nurse should notify the Rapid Response Team to provide immediate advanced care. Administering albuterol would not address the underlying cause of cyanosis. Assessing peripheral pulses and obtaining cultures are not the priority as they do not directly address the urgent need to manage methemoglobinemia.

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