Nursing Elites

1. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

2. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?

• A. Rifampin
• B. Isoniazid
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Pyrazinamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.

3. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
• D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

4. A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. I ensured the client did not use bronchodilator medication within the specified timeframe.
• B. The client is prepared to undergo the examination in radiology.
• C. Physical therapy has approved the client for treadmill exercise.
• D. I instructed the client not to smoke for the required duration before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For accurate pulmonary function tests (PFTs), it is essential to communicate that the client did not use bronchodilators within the specified timeframe, did not smoke for the required duration before the test, and can comply with different breathing maneuvers. The use of a treadmill is not part of the PFT procedure and is unrelated to the testing process. Therefore, communicating about the client's ability to run on a treadmill is not relevant to the pulmonary function tests being conducted by the respiratory therapist.

5. When preparing a client for transfer to the ICU for placement of a pulmonary artery catheter, the nurse should explain that this catheter is used to monitor which of the following conditions?

• A. Intracranial pressure
• B. Spinal cord perfusion
• C. Renal function
• D. Hemodynamic status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulmonary artery catheter is primarily used to monitor hemodynamic status. It provides essential information on cardiac output, preload, afterload, and overall cardiovascular function. This data helps healthcare providers manage the client's fluid status, cardiac function, and guide treatment interventions in critically ill patients. Monitoring intracranial pressure, spinal cord perfusion, or renal function would require different monitoring devices and techniques, not a pulmonary artery catheter.

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