Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and a history of asthma. The provider reviews the orders and recognizes that clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

• A. Carvedilol
• B. Fluticasone
• C. Captopril
• D. Isosorbide dinitrate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluticasone. Carvedilol, Captopril, and Isosorbide dinitrate are commonly used in heart failure management and do not typically pose significant risks for clients with a history of asthma. However, Fluticasone is a corticosteroid used to manage asthma but can potentially worsen heart failure symptoms due to its anti-inflammatory effects. Therefore, the nurse should seek clarification regarding the prescription of Fluticasone for a client with heart failure and a history of asthma.

3. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
• B. Difficulty swallowing
• C. Heart rate of 122/min
• D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.

4. When performing tracheostomy care, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Use aseptic technique.
• B. Clean the inner cannula with mild soap and water.
• C. Secure new tracheostomy ties before removing old ones.
• D. Apply suction when inserting the catheter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, it is essential to ensure that the airway is maintained and secured at all times. Securing new tracheostomy ties before removing the old ones helps prevent accidental decannulation and ensures continuous airway patency. Aseptic technique is crucial to prevent infections but is not directly related to securing the tracheostomy ties. Cleaning the inner cannula with mild soap and water is important for maintaining hygiene but does not address the immediate need for securing the airway. Applying suction when inserting the catheter is not a standard practice during tracheostomy care.

5. A healthcare worker is caring for a group of clients in an infectious disease unit. The worker should wear an OSHA-approved N95 respirator mask when caring for a client with which of the following infectious diseases?

• A. Pertussis
• B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
• C. Tuberculosis
• D. Respiratory syncytial virus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An OSHA-approved N95 respirator mask is recommended when caring for a client with tuberculosis due to the airborne transmission of the disease. Tuberculosis poses a higher risk of transmission via respiratory droplets, making respiratory protection essential to prevent exposure and infection among healthcare workers.

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