Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?

• A. Attending a class on tracheostomy care
• B. Verbally explaining all steps in the procedure
• C. Performing the procedure independently
• D. Asking relevant questions about suctioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.

3. A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase protein intake.
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 mL/day.
• C. Consume a low-sodium diet.
• D. Take a daily multivitamin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites, the nurse should instruct them to consume a low-sodium diet. This dietary modification helps reduce fluid retention and manage ascites by decreasing the amount of sodium in the body, which helps prevent fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Limiting sodium intake is crucial in managing ascites and preventing further complications in clients with cirrhosis.

4. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
• B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
• C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
• D. Monitor the client for headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Widened QRS complexes
• B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
• C. Bounding peripheral pulses
• D. Warm, flushed skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is a condition characterized by increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in acidosis. One of the potential consequences of respiratory acidosis is the development of electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to cardiac conduction abnormalities, manifested as widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Therefore, in a client with respiratory acidosis, the healthcare professional should expect to find widened QRS complexes as a result of the associated hyperkalemia.

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