ATI RN
Adult Medical Surgical ATI
1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
- B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
- C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
- D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.
Correct answer: Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.
Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to reduce stomach upset.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Take one tablet every 5 minutes until the pain is relieved, up to three doses.
- D. This medication may cause drowsiness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take one nitroglycerin sublingual tablet every 5 minutes until the pain is relieved, up to three doses. This dosing regimen is essential for managing angina attacks effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not taken with food. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature, away from moisture and heat. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin typically does not cause drowsiness as a side effect.
3. At a well-visit, a mother voices concern that her 30-month-old has a smaller vocabulary than other children in his daycare. The nurse should:
- A. Admit the child to the hospital
- B. Assess the child for other age-appropriate development
- C. Suggest that the child is hearing impaired
- D. Explain that the child has a significant developmental delay
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a parent expresses concern about a child's development, it is essential to conduct a comprehensive assessment of all areas of development before jumping to conclusions. Choosing option B allows the nurse to evaluate the child for other age-appropriate developmental milestones to determine if there are any delays or concerns. Admitting the child to the hospital (option A) is not necessary at this point and may cause unnecessary stress. Suggesting hearing impairment (option C) without proper evaluation can lead to misdiagnosis. Explaining a significant developmental delay (option D) should only be done after a thorough assessment and diagnosis.
4. A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
- A. Eosinophils
- B. Neutrophils
- C. Leukotrienes
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections. When there is a breach in the skin like in this scenario, neutrophils are quickly recruited to the site of injury to phagocytize and kill bacteria. Eosinophils are primarily involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions, making choice A incorrect. Leukotrienes are lipid mediators involved in inflammation but are not cells, so choice C is incorrect. Monocytes are precursors to macrophages and play a role in immune response, but they are not the first cells to arrive at the site of a bacterial infection, making choice D incorrect.
5. What does the PR interval measure?
- A. Time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles
- B. Measurement of ventricular depolarization
- C. Duration of ventricular repolarization
- D. Segment representing the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The PR interval measures the time it takes for the electrical impulse to travel from the atria to the ventricles. It is crucial in diagnosing heart rhythm disorders, as abnormalities in this interval can indicate conduction abnormalities between the atria and ventricles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization, the QT interval represents the duration of ventricular repolarization, and the ST segment represents the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
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