Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A client was exposed to anthrax. Which of the following antibiotics should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Tobramycin
• D. Vancomycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of anthrax exposure, the recommended antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is effective against the anthrax bacterium, Bacillus anthracis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication, Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used for bacterial infections, and Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for Gram-positive bacterial infections. Therefore, the correct choice is Ciprofloxacin.

3. A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer pain medication as ordered.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Place the client in a supine position.
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of a pounding headache and blurred vision are indicative of autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. The nurse's priority action should be to check the client's blood pressure as autonomic dysreflexia can lead to severe hypertension. Identifying and addressing this elevated blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as seizures, stroke, or even death. Once the blood pressure is assessed and managed, further interventions can be implemented to address the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia.

4. A client develops a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Give morphine IV.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy.
• C. Start an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's.
• D. Initiate cardiac monitoring.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels and decrease the workload on the heart. It is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation before other interventions are initiated. Morphine IV, starting an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's, and initiating cardiac monitoring are important interventions but come after ensuring adequate oxygenation.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Stridor
• B. Copious oral secretions
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Sore throat

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.

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