a nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client the nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

2. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

3. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

4. While teaching a client with a new prescription for Warfarin, which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, found in green leafy vegetables, not potassium. The client should avoid consuming large amounts of foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy. Increasing potassium intake is not a concern related to Warfarin therapy, so this statement indicates a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements indicating good understanding of Warfarin therapy. Avoiding large amounts of green leafy vegetables helps prevent fluctuations in vitamin K levels, taking medication consistently maintains therapeutic levels, and reporting any signs of bleeding is essential for monitoring and managing potential side effects of Warfarin.

5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.

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