a nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client the nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

2. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.

3. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The interaction between oxycodone and ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). They work through different mechanisms but complement each other in pain management. When taken together, they can enhance the pain-relieving effects of each other, providing better pain relief for the client.

4. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This regimen helps in relieving angina symptoms effectively. Option A of taking one tablet every 15 minutes is too infrequent and may delay symptom relief. Option C of taking one tablet at bedtime is not appropriate as Nitroglycerin is used for immediate relief of angina. Option D of taking one tablet on an empty stomach is irrelevant since Nitroglycerin is not affected by food intake.

5. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.

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