a nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client the nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin to a client. The professional should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse effect of vancomycin characterized by flushing and rash. It is not related to nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, or diarrhea. Monitoring for this reaction allows for prompt intervention to prevent severe complications.

2. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.

3. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

5. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

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