Nursing Elites

1. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?

• A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
• B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
• C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
• D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.

2. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?

• A. It means it is caused by another disease.
• B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
• C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
• D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.

3. A client presents to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) at 1500 (3:00 PM). The facility has 24-hour catheterization laboratory capabilities. To meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures set, by what time should the client have a percutaneous coronary intervention performed?

• A. 1530 (3:30 PM)
• B. 1600 (4:00 PM)
• C. 1630 (4:30 PM)
• D. 1700 (5:00 PM)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Joint Commission's Core Measures set for MI includes percutaneous coronary intervention within 90 minutes of the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Since the client presented at 1500 (3:00 PM), the percutaneous coronary intervention should be performed no later than 1630 (4:30 PM), to adhere to the 90-minute timeline for optimal outcomes.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the provider place at the client's bedside?

• A. Bag valve mask device
• B. Defibrillator machine
• C. Chest tube equipment
• D. Central venous catheter tray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client receives a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent, it can lead to respiratory muscle paralysis. Placing a bag valve mask device at the client's bedside is crucial for providing immediate respiratory support in case of respiratory depression or failure. This device allows manual ventilation by squeezing the bag to deliver breaths to the client. The other options, such as a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, and central venous catheter tray, are not directly related to managing respiratory complications associated with neuromuscular blockade.

5. When assessing a client with pneumonia, which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Fremitus
• B. Hyperresonance
• C. Dullness on percussion
• D. Decreased tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In pneumonia, lung tissue consolidation occurs, leading to dullness on percussion. This is a typical finding in pneumonia. Fremitus and decreased tactile fremitus are more commonly associated with conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Hyperresonance is typically seen in conditions causing air trapping, such as emphysema.

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