Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with glaucoma. The provider needs to determine if it is open-angle glaucoma or closed-angle glaucoma. What test does the nurse anticipate?

• A. Ultrasonic imaging
• B. Gonioscopy
• C. Corneal staining
• D. Electroretinography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gonioscopy is the appropriate test to anticipate in this scenario. It is used to distinguish between open-angle and closed-angle glaucoma by examining the angle where the iris meets the cornea. Choice A, ultrasonic imaging, is not typically used to differentiate between these types of glaucoma. Choice C, corneal staining, is used to detect corneal abrasions and defects, not to differentiate between types of glaucoma. Choice D, electroretinography, is a test that measures the electrical responses of various cell types in the retina and is not specific to differentiating between open-angle and closed-angle glaucoma.

2. The 65-year-old male client who is complaining of blurred vision reports he thinks his glasses need to be cleaned all the time and he denies any type of eye pain. Which eye disorder should the nurse suspects the clients has?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Diabetic retinopathy
• C. Corneal dystrophy
• D. Conjunctivitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

3. A nurse is caring for a 25-year-old male quadriplegic client. Which of the following treatments would the nurse perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility?

• A. Administer glucosamine supplements
• B. Turn the client every 2 hours
• C. Provide active range of motion (ROM)
• D. Provide passive range of motion (ROM)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide passive range of motion (ROM). In quadriplegic clients, who have limited or no movement of their limbs, passive ROM exercises are crucial to maintain joint mobility and prevent joint contractures. Administering glucosamine supplements (choice A) is not directly related to promoting joint mobility. Turning the client every 2 hours (choice B) is essential for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address joint contracture and mobility. Providing active ROM exercises (choice C) may not be suitable for quadriplegic clients as they are unable to perform these movements on their own.

4. Why is a client with osteoporosis prone to fractures?

• A. The client has bone spurs that lead to fractures
• B. The client has increased bone density
• C. The client has porous bones
• D. The client is not prone to fractures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is characterized by porous, weak bones due to decreased bone density. This porous nature of bones in osteoporosis makes them more prone to fractures. Choice A is incorrect because bone spurs do not lead to fractures in osteoporosis; they are bony outgrowths unrelated to osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect as osteoporosis is associated with decreased, not increased, bone density. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with osteoporosis are indeed prone to fractures due to weakened bones.

5. A client is diagnosed with systemic sclerosis (scleroderma). What symptoms is the first to occur?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Raynaud's phenomenon
• C. Intense wrinkle
• D. Joint pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

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