Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is a beta blocker?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Verapamil (Calan)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is taking Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bruising
• B. Report of metallic taste
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Report of anorexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is the report of anorexia. Anorexia, blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Bruising, metallic taste, and muscle pain are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Patients should promptly report symptoms of toxicity to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

3. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?

• A. The vein for thrombophlebitis during IV administration.
• B. The subcutaneous site for redness following injection.
• C. The oral mucosa for ulceration after oral administration.
• D. The skin for irritation following removal of transdermal patch.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Injection-site reactions such as redness and swelling are common. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for potential adverse effects.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

5. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Nausea
• C. Constipation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is tinnitus. Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, which may manifest as tinnitus. Tinnitus should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further hearing damage.

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