Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is a beta blocker?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Verapamil (Calan)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

2. When educating a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, which manifestation should the nurse instruct the client to report as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dry cough
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a well-known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors, such as enalapril. This cough can be bothersome and may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to explore potential alternatives or adjustments to the treatment plan. Tremors, drowsiness, and hyperactivity are not commonly associated with enalapril and are less likely to be attributed to this medication.

3. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 200 mL/hr to administer clindamycin 200 mg over 30 minutes. Choice A is correct because it provides the accurate flow rate needed for the administration of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not calculate the flow rate correctly based on the volume and time specified in the question.

5. A client has a new prescription for Maraviroc to treat HIV infection. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?

• A. Liver failure
• B. Kidney failure
• C. Pancreatitis
• D. Severe allergic reactions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Severe allergic reactions. Maraviroc, used to treat HIV infection, can lead to severe allergic reactions, including hepatotoxicity. While liver failure is a potential adverse effect, it is often preceded by hepatotoxicity manifestations like jaundice or right upper quadrant pain. Kidney failure and pancreatitis are not typically associated with Maraviroc use. Therefore, monitoring for signs of severe allergic reactions and hepatotoxicity is crucial for early detection and intervention.

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