Nursing Elites

1. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?

• A. You need to control yourself. If you cannot, we will do it for you.
• B. This can seem embarrassing, but we want you to be safe.
• C. You will stay on these precautions for one week.
• D. When you feel you are safer, then we will not need to observe you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.

2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

3. A client has been prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse provide during discharge?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
• C. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking bupropion (Wellbutrin) due to the increased risk of side effects like seizures. Alcohol can interact with bupropion and worsen its side effects, making it important to abstain from alcohol consumption during the treatment. Option A is incorrect because taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for medications and not specific to bupropion. Option B is incorrect as abruptly stopping bupropion can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Option D is incorrect as doubling the dose of bupropion is dangerous and should not be done, even if a dose is missed.

4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve focus, attention span, and impulse control. Haloperidol, fluoxetine, and clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, fluoxetine is an antidepressant, and clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, each with different mechanisms of action and primary indications.

5. When an individual's stress response is sustained over a long period of time, which physiological effect of the endocrine system should one anticipate?

• A. Decreased resistance to disease
• B. Increased libido
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Increased inflammatory response

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When stress is prolonged, the body reaches the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome, where compensatory mechanisms fail, and diseases of adaptation may occur. One physiological effect includes a decreased immune response, leading to decreased resistance to disease. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Increased libido (choice B) is not a typical physiological effect related to prolonged stress. Decreased blood pressure (choice C) is not commonly associated with sustained stress. Increased inflammatory response (choice D) may occur in the short term due to stress, but over a prolonged period, the immune system's function weakens, leading to decreased resistance to disease.

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