Nursing Elites

1. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?

• A. You need to control yourself. If you cannot, we will do it for you.
• B. This can seem embarrassing, but we want you to be safe.
• C. You will stay on these precautions for one week.
• D. When you feel you are safer, then we will not need to observe you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.

2. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

• A. There has been no triiodothyronine or thyroxine level evaluation ordered
• B. Neurocognitive disorders do not typically occur in African American clients
• C. The symptoms presented are more indicative of parkinsonism
• D. Dementia does not develop suddenly

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• D. Administer a prescribed sedative.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

4. Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare provider can use when interacting with clients? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Using Noise
• B. Offering self
• C. Giving advice
• D. Providing reassurance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Therapeutic communication techniques aim to promote a therapeutic relationship and client well-being. Using noise is a non-therapeutic technique that can hinder effective communication. Offering self, providing reassurance, and using silence are considered therapeutic. However, giving advice is often seen as non-therapeutic as it can diminish client autonomy and hinder problem-solving skills.

5. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant commonly used in the treatment of ADHD. It helps improve focus, attention, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Haloperidol and clozapine are antipsychotic medications typically used for other conditions such as schizophrenia, while fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor commonly used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. Therefore, the correct answer is Methylphenidate (Choice C).

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