Nursing Elites

1. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?

• A. You need to control yourself. If you cannot, we will do it for you.
• B. This can seem embarrassing, but we want you to be safe.
• C. You will stay on these precautions for one week.
• D. When you feel you are safer, then we will not need to observe you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.

2. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client manage compulsive behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
• B. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors with limits.
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.
• D. Discourage the client from performing compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors with limits is a therapeutic intervention for managing OCD. This approach grants the client some autonomy while ensuring that the behaviors do not excessively disrupt daily life. Setting boundaries helps structure the behaviors, decreasing anxiety and distress associated with OCD. Encouraging the client to suppress compulsive behaviors (choice A) may lead to increased anxiety and potential worsening of symptoms. Teaching relaxation techniques (choice C) is beneficial for managing anxiety in general but may not directly address the compulsive behaviors. Discouraging the client from performing compulsive behaviors (choice D) without providing alternative strategies or support may increase distress and resistance.

4. Why is the DSM-5 useful in the practice of psychiatric nursing?

• A. It guides the nurse in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses.
• B. It represents progress toward a more holistic view of mind and body.
• C. It provides a framework for interdisciplinary communication.
• D. It provides a template for nursing care plans.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a crucial tool in psychiatric nursing as it guides nurses in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses of mental health conditions. Using the DSM-5 ensures that diagnoses are standardized, improving the quality and precision of care for clients. While the DSM-5 also supports a holistic view, interdisciplinary communication, and care plan development, its primary role in psychiatric nursing is to assist clinicians in diagnosing mental health conditions accurately.

5. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

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