Nursing Elites

1. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?

• A. You need to control yourself. If you cannot, we will do it for you.
• B. This can seem embarrassing, but we want you to be safe.
• C. You will stay on these precautions for one week.
• D. When you feel you are safer, then we will not need to observe you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.

2. A patient with panic disorder is prescribed a benzodiazepine. The nurse should educate the patient that this medication is typically used for:

• A. For long-term maintenance therapy.
• B. As a first-line treatment.
• C. For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.
• D. To treat depression symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'For short-term use due to the risk of dependence.' Benzodiazepines are usually prescribed for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms due to the risk of dependence. Prolonged use can lead to tolerance, dependence, and other adverse effects, so they are not typically used for long-term maintenance therapy (choice A). They are not considered first-line treatments for panic disorder (choice B) and are not primarily used to treat depression symptoms (choice D), as their main indication is for anxiety and panic disorders.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client manage compulsive behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
• B. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors with limits.
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.
• D. Discourage the client from performing compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors with limits is a therapeutic intervention for managing OCD. This approach grants the client some autonomy while ensuring that the behaviors do not excessively disrupt daily life. Setting boundaries helps structure the behaviors, decreasing anxiety and distress associated with OCD. Encouraging the client to suppress compulsive behaviors (choice A) may lead to increased anxiety and potential worsening of symptoms. Teaching relaxation techniques (choice C) is beneficial for managing anxiety in general but may not directly address the compulsive behaviors. Discouraging the client from performing compulsive behaviors (choice D) without providing alternative strategies or support may increase distress and resistance.

4. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

5. A male patient calls to tell the nurse that his monthly lithium level is 1.7 mEq/L. Which nursing intervention will the nurse implement initially?

• A. Reinforce that the level is above the therapeutic range.
• B. Instruct the patient to hold the next dose of medication and contact the prescriber.
• C. Advise the patient to go to the hospital emergency room immediately.
• D. Inform the patient about the possibility of seizures and appropriate precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lithium level of 1.7 mEq/L is above the therapeutic range, indicating a potential risk of toxicity. The initial nursing intervention should be to instruct the patient to hold the next dose of medication and promptly contact the prescriber for further guidance and management. This action aims to prevent adverse effects and ensure the patient's safety by addressing the elevated lithium level appropriately.

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