a client has been placed on suicide precautions as you explain the precaution to him what would be the best explanation
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023

1. When explaining suicide precautions to a client, what would be the best explanation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D provides a supportive and empowering explanation to the client on suicide precautions. It emphasizes the client's own sense of safety and control, indicating that the observation is temporary and can be removed when the client feels safer. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the client to actively participate in their own well-being, fostering a therapeutic relationship based on trust and collaboration.

2. A school nurse is assessing a female high school student who is overly concerned about her appearance. The client's mother states, 'That's not something to be stressed about!' Which is the most appropriate nursing response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response is D: 'Stress can be psychological. A threat to self-esteem may result in high stress levels.' This response acknowledges the psychological aspect of stress and how a perceived threat to self-esteem can be just as stressful as a physiological change. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the client's concerns or provide a therapeutic response to the situation.

3. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.

4. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

Similar Questions

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is receiving discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude?
A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?
A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?
A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare provider can use when interacting with clients? Select one that does not apply.

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