Nursing Elites

1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?

• A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
• B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
• C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
• D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.

2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

4. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't a healthcare professional expect to assess in a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

• A. Excessive worry
• B. Muscle tension
• C. Increased energy
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include excessive worry, muscle tension, restlessness, and irritability. Increased energy is not typically associated with GAD; instead, clients often experience fatigue due to the persistent anxiety and worry that characterize the disorder.

5. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who is taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for depression. Which symptom should the healthcare provider identify as an adverse effect that requires immediate attention?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Weight gain
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a serious adverse effect associated with SSRIs and require immediate attention. This symptom is critical as it can increase the risk of self-harm or suicide in individuals taking these medications. Increased appetite and weight gain are common side effects of SSRIs but do not require immediate attention. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of SSRIs, making it an incorrect choice. Healthcare providers must promptly recognize and address suicidal thoughts to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

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