a client does not understand why vision loss due to glaucoma is irreversible what is the best explanation
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Multi Dimensional Care | Final Exam

1. A client does not understand why vision loss due to glaucoma is irreversible. What is the best explanation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In glaucoma, the optic nerve damage due to high intraocular pressure leads to permanent vision loss because the nerve fibers do not regenerate. Choice A is incorrect as it discusses bacterial infection, not relevant to glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because it refers to retinal detachment, not glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because not all glaucoma cases lead to permanent blindness; vision loss can be prevented or slowed with treatment.

2. What is not appropriate client education on the preventing the spread of methicillin- resistance Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

3. What nursing intervention is best to improve communication with a hearingimpaired client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

4. What is a sign of inadequate perfusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

5. The medical record for a client states that the client has hemiplegia. What does this mean?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hemiplegia refers to paralysis on one side of the body, affecting either the right or left side. Choice A is incorrect because it describes selective paralysis of specific limbs, not one side of the body. Choice B is incorrect as hemiplegia does not involve paralysis of all four extremities. Choice C is also incorrect as decreased vision in one eye is not indicative of hemiplegia.

Similar Questions

A client does not understand why vision loss due to glaucoma is irreversible. What is the nurse's best explanation?
Which among the following is NOT the cause of pressure ulcers?
The nurse is caring for a 65-year-old client and notes a temperature of 101°F. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
The client complains of fatigue and joint pain and reports that they are unable to walk due to pain in the knees. What is the most appropriate statement by the nurse?
Why is a client with osteoporosis prone to fractures?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses